Answer:
multiply all those numbers together
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
read below
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
the answer is m=-3n-5/2 or n=2m+5/6
Answer:
A: -2
Step-by-step explanation:
Hopefully this helps!
Answer:
10.36
Step-by-step explanation:
So your solution would be:








Just try to remember PEMDAS.
Parenthesis, Exponent, Multiplication/Division, Addition/Subtraction.
This is the order we follow when going about expressions with many operations.
Let's start with the parenthesis part. Notice that there is an exponent beside the parenthesis enclosing the fraction. Here we use the quotient to a power rule. We distribute the exponent to the numerator and the denominator.



Now that we got the parenthesis and exponent out of the way, let's move on to the next. Multiplication/Division. Whichever comes first, you do it first.
We have a fraction so we do that first. Then we do the multiplication after.


Next we do the addition/subtraction. Again, whichever comes first.


Step-by-step explanation:
The answer is mentioned above.