Answer:Throughout the 1780s and 1790s, Washington stated privately that he no longer wanted to be a slaveowner, that he did not want to buy and sell slaves or separate enslaved families, and that he supported a plan for gradual abolition in the United States. Yet, Washington did not always act on his antislavery principles.
Explanation:
A concern for safety has led to greater restrictions on illegal immigration.
<u>Answer:</u>
<em>The document above most likely provides an analysis of </em>
<em>a. the Oregon Treaty</em>
<em></em>
<u>Explanation:</u>
The Oregon Treaty settled the question between the America and Britain because of the zone in Oregon situated between the Columbia River and the 49th parallel. In 1818, the two nations had consented to joint control of Oregon, and this understanding had been recharged by arrangement in 1827.
Falling apart relations with Mexico and a general functional assessment made the trade-off satisfactory to the United States, while Britain was moreover keen on a serene arrangement since it had all the more squeezing domestic and remote issues to consider.
Yes, it was. The Treaty of Versailles made Germany take full responsibility for World War I, even though the war was the fault of multiple countries. It also made Germany pay extensive war debts to pay for the damages of the war, which completely destroyed Germany's economy with inflation. The Treaty of Versailles also severely limited Germany's military, which was very important to them. So Germany's response to the Treaty of Versailles was legitimate due to the severe punishments inflicted on Germany which were very harsh for a war that they did help initiate, but were not completely at fault for.