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rusak2 [61]
3 years ago
11

Can you use the SAS postulate, the AAS theorem, or bothto prove the triangles are congruent

Mathematics
1 answer:
NikAS [45]3 years ago
3 0
Yes, most definitely
I hope that this helps!

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Whats 2+1*7 nnebfbwjqj
Svetlanka [38]
2+1=3*7=21 hope I helped 
6 0
3 years ago
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You are dealt two cards successively without replacement from a standard deck of 52 playing cards. Find the probability that the
Snowcat [4.5K]

Answer:

(D) 0.006

Step-by-step explanation:

Total number of cards :52

Please note that, all cards have a the possibility of appearing 4 times.

Hence total possible number of a '2' is 4 cards and so it is also for a '10'

Having this Understanding, let's solve the question properly.

The probability that the FIRST CARD is 2 = 4/52

Probability that the second card without replacement is a 10 = 4 / 51

P( 1st two and 2nd four)

4/52 * 4/51 = 4/663

= 0.0060332

Rounding to 3 decimal places = 0.006

4 0
3 years ago
Which of the following represents a relation that is not a function?
Inessa05 [86]

Answer:

C.

x -7 -5 -1 1

y 33 31 39 33

Step-by-step explanation:

think so

6 0
2 years ago
What is 4/20 simplified
frozen [14]
4/20 simplified would be 1/5. You must know what simplify means first. It means to break down a fraction to its simplest form. So, to simplify 4/20, you must divide 4 from the denominator and numerator. A numerator is a number that is the number above the line. A denominator is the number on the bottom of the line. 
Dividing 4 from the denominator and numerator would make it 1/5. Therefore, the answer in simplest form is 1/5. Good luck!
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Sec s = 1.6948
Anastaziya [24]
That'd be true only if the value of "s" is the exact same one for both
namely  if sec(s) = cos(s)
then solving for "s"
thus

\bf sec(s)=cos(s)\qquad but\implies sec(\theta)=\cfrac{1}{cos(\theta)}
\\\\\\
thus\cfrac{1}{cos(s)}=cos(s)\implies 1=cos^2(s)\implies \pm \sqrt{1}=cos(s)
\\\\\\
\pm 1=cos(s)\impliedby \textit{now taking }cos^{-1}\textit{ to both sides}
\\\\\\
cos^{-1}(\pm 1)=cos^{-1}[cos(s)]\implies cos^{-1}(\pm 1)=\measuredangle s
5 0
3 years ago
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