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3 years ago

Each tile is 3/2 feet by 3/2 feet. There are 10 tiles on the bathroom floor.

Mathematics

1 answer:

Yuki888 [10]3 years ago

4 0

9514 1404 393

Answer:

22.5 square feet

Step-by-step explanation:

The area covered by one tile is the product of its dimensions:

A = lw

A = (3/2 ft)(3/2 ft) = 9/4 ft²

The area covered by 10 tiles is 10 times the area covered by one tile. The area covered is ...

covered by tiles = 10 × 9/4 ft² = 90/4 ft²

covered by tiles = 22.5 ft²

22 1/2 square feet is the area covered by tiles.

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Suppose that each time Giannis Antetokounmpo shoots a free throw, he has a 3/4 probability of success. If Giannis shoots three f

GREYUIT [131]

Answer:

84.38% probability that he succeeds on at least two of them

Step-by-step explanation:

For each free throw, there are only two possible outcomes. Either Giannis makes it, or he does not. The free throws are independent. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And p is the probability of X happening.

He has a 3/4 probability of success.

This means that $p = \frac{3}{4} = 0.75$

Giannis shoots three free throws

This means that $n = 3$

What is the probability that he succeeds on at least two of them

$P(X \geq 2) = P(X = 2) + P(X = 3)$

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 2) = C_{3,2}.(0.75)^{2}.(0.25)^{1} = 0.4219$

$P(X = 3) = C_{3,3}.(0.75)^{3}.(0.25)^{0} = 0.4219$

$P(X \geq 2) = P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) = 0.4219 + 0.4219 = 0.8438$

84.38% probability that he succeeds on at least two of them

6 0

2 years ago

You draw two cards from a standard deck of 52 cards. What is the probability of drawing a queen and then a king consecutively fr

Gelneren [198K]

Answer:

4/663

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 4 queens and 4 kings in a deck. Drawing a queen would be 4/52. Drawing a king afterwards with replacing the queen would be 4/51 because you took a queen but didn't replace that one queen card so the deck has only 51 cards left after you drew the queen. Drawing a queen would not affect your chance of drawing a king card, it will only affect the total number of cards left because you didn't replace the card afterwards. 4*4=16;52*51=2652. 16/2652 can be simplified to 4/663 by dividing 4 to both numbers. 16/4=4 and 2652/4=663. The probability of drawing a queen then a king without replacement would be 4/663.

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Hi can you please help me<br>i cant answer this question.

Alex_Xolod [135]

Answer:

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2 years ago

Can someone help me

Nikitich [7]

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