Answer:
rod waves can give u the answer for that just play a some him
L’ (4.5,0) J’(-4.5, -4.5) K’(-4.5,4.5) i think
Answer:
the answer is stop cheating
Step-by-step explanation:
Speak english
Answer:
4m
Step-by-step explanation:
it would be 4m because there are four different copies and the variable being used originally is 'm'. therefore, we can move it around and since addition is basically the longer version of multiplication, we would correct this to 4m.
good luck :)
i hope this helps
have a nice day !!
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
b) 1- scale factor from the first map to the second map:
= 1.33
2- landmark on the first map is a triangle with side lengths of 3 mm, 4 mm, and 5 mm.
Side lengths of the landmark on the second map
Divide the length by scale factor:
side lengths of 3 mm:
= 2.25 mm
side lengths of 4 mm:
= 3.007 mm
side lengths of 5 mm:
= 3.75 mm