Answer: Hello mate!
A direct variation implies that, if y is the dependent variable that varies with the variable x; then: y = k*x where k is a real number.
An inverse variation has the form y = k/x where also k is a real number.
them, if we define s as the hours that Bob spends studying, and b as the hours that he spends playing baseball, then the equation that represents the score is:
Score(s,b) = k*s/b
we know that if s = 6, and b = 7, then the score is 72; with this information, we could obtain the value of the constant k.
score(6,7) = 72 =k*6/7 = k*
then k = 72*(7/6) = 61.7
now if s = 4 and b = 6, the score that he should expect is:
score( 4, 6) = 61.7*(4/6) = 41
Answer:
The value of the experimental probability is greater
Step-by-step explanation:
For the theoretical probability;
the probability that a card with the number 3 is selected is 1/5
We consider that the probabilities of each selection are equal, for the theoretical probability
For the experimental, we simply place the frequency of the selection 3 over the total
that will be 128/400 = 8/25
As we know that 8/25 is greater than 1/5
We can conclude that the value of the experimental probability is greater than that of the theoretical
There is no graph.
The statement that describes the translation is that it does not exist.
It would be 82 2/3 since 1/3 minis 2/3 would equal -1/3 you subtract that from 83 and get 82 2/3
Answer:
The coefficient is equal to 
Step-by-step explanation:
we have
we know that
The coefficient is equal to
so
