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Veseljchak [2.6K]
3 years ago
11

I am tossing a fair coin. In the last 10 tosses, there were 7 heads and 3 tails. What is the probability of getting tails on my

next toss? Give your answer as a reduced common fraction.
I need a thorough explanation on this and if you could tell me the specific type of probability this is so I can look it up for further understanding that would awesome.
Mathematics
2 answers:
Airida [17]3 years ago
8 0
The EXPERIMENTAL probability would by 3/10 because out of the 10 times you tossed it, you got tails 3 times.

The THEORETICAL probability would be 1/2 because there are only 2 results you could get: heads or tails. 

Hope this helps :)
Yanka [14]3 years ago
6 0
3/10 
The denominator is how many times you threw it in all
The numerator is how many times it landed on that result
3/10 as a percentage is 30%

The answer is 30% ( Experimental )

Another way is how there are only two options you can get and you can only get so you get 1/2
1/2 as a percentage is 50%(theoretical)

Hope this helps! Brainliest?


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Please solve and show how. I get a different answer each time. <br><br> -3(8 - x)
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Multiply -3 to both numbers

-3 multiplied by 8 is equal to - 24
-3 multiplied by -x is 3x (should be positive for double negative)

answer: 3x-24
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What is 1.234 + 8.89?
goldenfox [79]

Answer:


Step-by-step explanation:

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Ancient Egyptians did not write the fraction 4/5 as 4/5. Instead they used unit fractions. The numerator of a unit fraction is a
Salsk061 [2.6K]

<u>3/4</u>  =  1/2  +  1/4

<u>5/8</u>  =  1/2  +  1/8

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7 0
3 years ago
The point (2, –4) is reflected across the line y = –1. What are the coordinates of the image?
schepotkina [342]

ANSWER

The coordinates of the image are (2,2)

EXPLANATION

The mapping for a reflection across the line y=k is :

(x,y)\to (x,2k-y)

We want to find the image of the point (2,-4) after a reflection in the line y=-1.

In this case k=-1.

(2, - 4)\to (2,2( - 1)- - 4)

This simplifies to,

(2, - 4)\to (2, - 2 + 4)

(2, - 4)\to (2, 2)

Hence the image is (2,2)

4 0
3 years ago
You decide to play roulette 200 times each time betting the same amount on red. you will loe money if you win on fewer than 100
Arturiano [62]
First off, your chances of red are not really 50-50. You are overlooking the 0 slot or the 00 slot which are green. So, chances of red are 18 in 37 (0 slot) or 38 (0 and 00 slots). With a betting machine, the odds does not change no trouble what has occurred before. Think through the simplest circumstance, a coin toss. If I toss heads 10 times one after the other, the chances of tails about to happen on the next toss are still on a 50-50. A betting machine has no ability, no plan, and no past. 
Chances (0 slot) that you success on red are 18 out of 37 (18 red slots), but likelihoods of losing are 19 out of 37 (18 black plus 0). For the wheel with both a 0 and 0-0 slot, the odds are poorer. You chances of red are 18 out of 38 (18 red slots win), and down are 20 out of 38 (18 black plus 0 and 00). It does not really matter on how long you play there, the probabilities would always continue the same on every spin. The lengthier you play, the more thoroughly you will tie the chances with a total net loss of that portion of a percent in accord of the house. 18 winning red slots and either 19 or 20 losing slots. 
6 0
3 years ago
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