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mart [117]
3 years ago
12

Nancy operates a business that uses the accrual method of accounting. In December, Nancy asked her brother, Hank, to provide her

business with consulting advice. Hank billed Nancy for $5,000 of consulting services in year 0 (a reasonable amount), but Nancy was only able to pay $3,000 of the bill by the end of year 0. However, Nancy paid the remainder of the bill in year 1. a. How much of the $5,000 consulting services will Hank include in his income in year 0 if he uses the cash method of accounting? What amount can Nancy deduct in year 0 for the consulting services?
Business
1 answer:
alexandr1967 [171]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Assuming both use cash basis, they will each deduct $3000 in year 0.

Explanation:

There are two basis to record transactions. Cash basis and accrual basis. According to accrual all the revenues and expenses are  matched against the period they occur. In Cash basis, only transactions are realized when actual cash is received. Assuming both Nancy and Hank use cash basis,

Hank will record 3000 cash income in year 0 and Nancy will record 3000 cash expense in year 0.

Hope that helps.

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On January 1, Year 1, Zero Company obtained a $52,000, 4-year, 6.5% installment note from Regional Bank. The note requires annua
Gnom [1K]

Answer:

$ 11,799 is the principal balance of the note payable.

Explanation:

The  Interest expense for the installment note on the year of the December 31, year can be determined by the following equation that are mention below

= 52,000 * 6.5\ percent

52,000 * \frac{6.5}{100}

= $\ 3,380

Now the Principal balance  of the component in $15,179 payment of the  December 31, year 1  can be determined by the

principal\  and \ interest\ of \ note\ annual\  payments -   Interest\ expense \ for\  the\  installment\   note

= 15,179 -3,380

=$ 11,799

5 0
3 years ago
The Engine Division provides diesel engines for the Motor Home Division of a company. The standard unit costs for Engine Divisio
Lisa [10]

Answer:

The best transfer price to avoid transfer price problems is $2,310

Explanation:

Transfer Price = Variable cost + Fixed Fee

Variable Cost = Direct Material + Direct labor + Variable Overhead

                       = 600 + 1,200 + 300

                       = 2,100

Transfer Price = Variable cost + Fixed Fee

                        = 2,100 + 210

                        = $2,310

Therefore, The best transfer price to avoid transfer price problems is $2,310

3 0
3 years ago
Vincent operates a scenic tour business in Boston. He has one bus which can fit 50 people per tour and each tour lasts 2 hours.
mixas84 [53]

Answer:

There is some information missing, and when I looked for it I found similar questions but the demand was already given and the question was about Vincent's total daily income.

Passenger                  Price                  Daily demand

Adults                          $18                        70

Children                      $10                        25

Senior citizens            $12                        55

total                                                           150

total revenue per day = ($18 x 70) + ($10 x 25) + ($12 x 55) = $1,260 + $250 + $660 = $2,170

total operating costs per day = (150 / 50) x $450 = $1,350

operating income per day = $2,170 - $1,350 = $820

6 0
3 years ago
A corporation issued 5,000 shares of its $1 par value common stock in exchange for land (market value $30,000) and a building (m
olga2289 [7]

Answer:

The correct option is A,Debit Land and Building, $130,000; Credit Common Stock, $5,000; Credit Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par Value, Common Stock, $125,000.

Explanation:

The sum of the two market values of both land and building is $130,000($100,000+$30,000),which would be debited to land and building account to show that the asset has increased due to new acquisition.

In the common stock account the par value of the shares which is $5,000($1*5000) would be credited to it.

The difference between the market value of assets acquired and the common stock amount which is $125,000($130,000-$5,000) would be credited to paid in capital in excess of par account.

3 0
3 years ago
When a market’s annual growth rate falls below 10 percent, a star will become a dog if it still has the largest market share?
mezya [45]
That statement is false

according to <span>IX Boston Consulting Group Model, a star will became a<em> cash cow</em> </span><span>if it still has the largest market share under this circumstances.
This means that the company still making enough cash for its employees and still enjoy a pretty high-profit margin.

</span>
3 0
3 years ago
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