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3 years ago

What is the unit rate for the table showing the cost of movies

Mathematics

2 answers:

ioda3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

$2.75

Step-by-step explanation:

In the given table first row represents movies/week and second row represents the cost.

We need to find the unit rate for the table.

From the given table it is clear that cost of 4 movies/week is 11.

$\text{Unit Rate}=\dfrac{Cost}{Movies/week}$

$\text{Unit Rate}=\dfrac{11}{4}$

$\text{Unit Rate}=2.75$

We have,

$\text{Unit Rate}=\dfrac{11}{4}=\dfrac{13.75}{5}=\dfrac{19.25}{7}=\dfrac{22}{8}=2.75$

Hence, the unit rate is $2.75.

Lera25 [3.4K]3 years ago

4 0

Use any column and divide the cost by the number of tickets.
For example, do $11/4, or $22/8. Any of those divisions will give you the same answer.

$11/4 = $2.75/ticket

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Solve for m. -19m − 19 = 4m − 4m + 19

dangina [55]

-19m-19 = 4m-4m+19
-19m-19 = 0+19
-19m = 19+19
-19m = 38
m = 38÷(-19)
m = -2

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3 years ago

Can anybody help out this math question it’s about graph please

malfutka [58]

Neither one of the slopes are going to be minus. It means you are travelling backwards in time, which is wonderful if you are a sci-fi fan, but not so good if you are Sharon. A and D has Sharon going from 70 to 0. That can't be happening so both are wrong.

Now you have to decide between B and C. The intersection point has Sharon going upwards until she is 20. She started out at 70. The graph has John starting at 70. That's not right.

So we've eliminated A,D and now C.

The answer must be B. They meet when Sharon is 90 and John is about 22.5 which is what it should be.

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2 years ago

Use the fact that the mean of a geometric distribution is μ= 1 p and the variance is σ2= q p2. A daily number lottery chooses th

butalik [34]

Answer:

a). The mean = 1000

The variance = 999,000

The standard deviation = 999.4999

b). 1000 times , loss

Step-by-step explanation:

The mean of geometric distribution is given as , $\mu = \frac{1}{p}$

And the variance is given by, $\sigma ^2=\frac{q}{p^2}$

Given : $p=\frac{1}{1000}$

= 0.001

The formulae of mean and variance are :

$\mu = \frac{1}{p}$

$\sigma ^2=\frac{q}{p^2}$

$\sigma ^2=\frac{1-p}{p^2}$

a). Mean = $\mu = \frac{1}{p}$

= $\mu = \frac{1}{0.001}$

= 1000

Variance = $\sigma ^2=\frac{1-p}{p^2}$

= $\sigma ^2=\frac{1-0.001}{0.001^2}$

= 999,000

The standard deviation is determined by the root of the variance.

$\sigma = \sqrt{\sigma^2}$

= $\sqrt{999,000}$ = 999.4999

b). We expect to have play lottery 1000 times to win, because the mean in part (a) is 1000.

When we win the profit is 500 - 1 = 499

When we lose, the profit is -1

Expected value of the mean μ is the summation of a product of each of the possibility x with the probability P(x).

$\mu=\Sigma\ x\ P(x)= 499 \times 0.001+(-1) \times (1-0.001)$

= $ 0.50

Since the answer is negative, we are expected to make a loss.

4 0

2 years ago

I said no it's not a function but why isn't it a function?

VMariaS [17]

It's not a function because the x value repeated but wasn't accompanied by the same y value . there is (-2,2) and (-2,14) but if they had the same y value like (-2,2) and (-2,2) or (-2,14) and (-2,14) the table would represent a function. If you still dont understand I'll be more than happy to elaborate :)

8 0

3 years ago

Which number line represents the solution to the inequality x - 3 > 2

Ivahew [28]

Answer: x > 5

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Since 3 is being subtracted from x, we add 3 to

both sides of the inequality to get x > 5.

When graphing x > 5, we have an open circle on 5 and the

open circle tells us that 5 is not part of our answer.

Then we draw an arrow going to the right to represent

all possible solutions to this inequality, any number greater than 5.

6 0

2 years ago