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NemiM [27]
3 years ago
6

What best explains the time value of money? the concept is another way to explain how inflation works. it just means that it's b

est to have money today, so it can be put to work sooner to make even more money. this is just a banking term. it's insider jargon for compound interest. it means that, as time goes by, a dollar buys more today than it will tomorrow because of inflation. of course, in a deflationary economy the process is inverse?
Business
1 answer:
Mamont248 [21]3 years ago
4 0
Time value of money <span>it's best to have money today, so it can be put to work sooner to make even more money. When you have money now, you can invest and start building </span>interest on it. The quicker you have money, the quicker you start to grow your money and the sooner it can double, triple etc. 
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Do you know da way?
sveta [45]

Answer:

that is really good

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
You are the owner of a smoothie shop in California. Afterhearing a podcast about customer relationship management (CRM), youdeci
Svetach [21]

Answer:

Average Customer Retention rate = 80%  

Average Value of Sales per year per customer = $120  

Average customer acquisition cost = Customer acquisition oriented market expenses per month/  

number of new customers acquired per month  

=\frac{1000}{25} = 40  

Average customer retention cost = $75  

CLV =[1/(1- Average customer retention rate)] x (average value of sales per year per customer)-(average customer acquisition cost + average customer retention cost)  

= [1/(1-0.8)] x 120-(40+75)

=$485  

A) Average customer retention rate =90%  

B) Average value of sales per year per customer = $125  

C) Average customer acquisition cost =$60  

D) Average customer retention cost =$100  

CLV = [1/(1- Average customer retention rate)] x (average value of sales per year per customer)-(average customer acquisition cost + average customer retention cost)  

= [1/(1-0.9)] x 125 - (60+100)

E) Customer Lifetime Value = 1090

Explanation:

Here are the spreadsheets.

3 0
3 years ago
Burns Industries currently manufactures and sells 18,000 power saws per month, although it has the capacity to produce 33,000 un
trasher [3.6K]

Answer:

Burns Industries

Using an incremental analysis approach, Burns should consider accepting this special order only if the price per unit offered by Allen is at least:

above $38 (the variable cost per unit).

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Monthly production and sales units = 18,000

Production capacity per month = 33,000 units

Costs at the 18,000-unit-per-month level of production:

Variable costs = $38

Fixed costs =        23

Total per unit =  $61

Selling price per unit = $78

Special offer for 4,800 saws per month, without changing the fixed manufacturing costs.

b) Incremental analysis approach is a management decision technique that specifies that only relevant, marginal, or differential costs should be taken into account.  It rules out the inclusion of sunk or fixed costs, which do not change between alternatives.

3 0
3 years ago
In some simple models of trade, a country may choose to specialize in the production of a single good. which is not an argument
LekaFEV [45]

An argument that is not against specializing in a single good in the real world is that specialization in a single good makes dumping easier and more effective.

If a country specializes in a single good, less waste will be produced and it can be dumped easily at one place and can be used or recycled more easily than to dump several different kinds of goods as they will need different technologies and to segregate them will be a hard job to do.

Countries improve their production of the commodity in which they specialize. There are many benefits to consumers if a country does so as specialization lowers the opportunity cost of production, increasing global production and lowering prices. These reduced pricing and increased supply benefit consumers.

To learn more about specialization in single good here

brainly.com/question/19018593

#SPJ4

7 0
2 years ago
A corporation makes an investment of $20,000 that will provide the following cash flows after the corresponding amounts of time:
s344n2d4d5 [400]

A) The company should not invest in the provided project due to the negative NPV of the project.

B) The NPV of the project comes out to be (286).

<h3>What is NPV?</h3>

NPV is an abbreviated form of Net present value and computed by deducting the cash outflows from cash inflows at the present value.

Given values:

Cash flow of year 1: $10,000

Cash flow of year 2: $10,000

Cash flow of year 3: $2,000

Cash outflow (cost of investment) =$20,000

Step-1 Computation of PV of cash inflows of every year:

PV of year 1 = Cash inflow of year 1 / (1+ interest rate)^ 1

                    = $10,000 / (1+0.07) ^ 1

                    = $10,000 X 0.934579

                    = $9,346

PV of year 2 = Cash inflow of year 1 / (1+ interest rate)^ 2

                    = $10,000 / (1+0.07) ^ 2

                    = $10,000 X 0.873438

                    = $8,735

PV of year 3= Cash inflow of year 1 / (1+ interest rate)^ 3

                   = $2,000 / (1+0.07) ^ 2

                    = $2,000 X 0.816297

                    =$1,633

Step-2 Computation of total amount of PV of cash inflows:

\rm\ PV \rm\ of \rm\ cash \rm\ inflows = \rm\ PV \rm\  of \rm\  year \rm\  1 + \rm\  PV \rm\ of \rm\ year \rm\ 2 + \rm\ PV \rm\ of \rm\ year \rm\ 3\\\rm\ PV \rm\ of \rm\ cash \rm\ inflows =\$9,346 + \$8,735 + \$1,633\\\rm\ PV \rm\ of \rm\ cash \rm\ inflows =\$19,714

Step-3 Computation of NPV:

\rm\ NPV=\rm\ PV \rm\ of \rm\ cash \rm\ inflows- \rm\ Cost \rm\ of \rm\ investment\\\rm\ NPV=\$19,714-\$20,000\\\rm\ NPV=\$ (286)

Therefore, the NPV comes out to be a negative amount of 286, and hence, the company should not accept the project.

Learn more about the net present value in the related link:

brainly.com/question/14015430

#SPJ1

5 0
2 years ago
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