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aleksandrvk [35]
3 years ago
13

Which of the following is the correct formula to compute the predetermined overhead rate?A. Estimated total units in the allocat

ion base divided by estimated total manufacturing overhead costs.B. Estimated total manufacturing overhead costs divided by actual total units in the allocation base.C. Estimated total manufacturing overhead costs divided by estimated total units in the allocation base.D. Actual total manufacturing overhead costs divided by estimated total units in the allocation base.
Business
1 answer:
juin [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

.B. Estimated total manufacturing overhead costs divided by actual total units in the allocation base.

Explanation:

the predetermined overhead rate=

Estimated total manufacturing overhead costs divided by actual total units in the allocation base.

predetermined overhead rate is usually applied early, it is rate of overhead cost to actual cost.

Let us say we have

Estimated total manufacturing overhead costs value of 400 with Estimated total units in the allocation of 10 with real unit of 100.

Then Predetermined overhead rate = 400 ÷ 10 = 40

Real overhead cost = overhead rate × real units

Then, Real overhead cost = 40 × 100 = 300

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Bolding Inc.'s contribution margin ratio is 61% and its fixed monthly expenses are $47,500. Assuming that the fixed monthly expe
Natali5045456 [20]

Answer:

c. $36,070

Explanation:

contribution margin ratio is the ratio of the contribution to sales of an entity for a given period.

contribution margin ratio= contribution/sales

where contribution is the difference between sales and the variable cost

Given;

sales = $137,000

contribution margin ratio = 61% = 0.61

0.61 = contribution/$137,000

contribution = $137,000 × 0.61

= $83,570

Net operating income is the difference between the contribution and the fixed cost.

Fixed cost = $47,500

Net operating income = $83,570 - $47,500

= $36,070

3 0
2 years ago
Assume the following data concerning a purchase of merchandise by Icon Co. on April 2:
Eduardwww [97]

The purchase amount that Icon Co. would record on April 2 would be: <u>c. $4,000</u>.

<h3>What is the purchase amount to be recorded?</h3>

The purchase amount that should be recorded on the date of purchase is the amount of the transaction.  This does not take into account the return and discount which happened later.

This implies that Icon Co. will reduce the purchase amount on April 4 when half of the goods were returned with a contra entry.  And discount will be based on the balance of $2,000 instead of $4,000.

<h3>Data and Calculations:</h3>

Purchase on April 2 = $4,000

Purchases Return on April 4 = $2,000

Thus, the purchase amount that Icon Co. would record on April 2 would be: <u>c. $4,000</u>.

Learn more about recording credit purchases at brainly.com/question/5651500

6 0
1 year ago
On January 1, 2017, Culver Company issued 10-year, $2,140,000 face value, 6% bonds, at par. Each $1,000 bond is convertible into
Dvinal [7]

Answer:

a) diluted earnings per share = 0

Explanation:

Diluted earnings per share (DEPS) is a recalculation of the basic EPS. The difference between DEPS and EPS is, EPS represents the current position of earnings per share. No changes in number shares and/or earnings in the future are incorporated in the basic EPS.

Whereas DEPS is a representation of  not only the current position of earnings and shares but also includes the commitments an entity has already made whose occurrence may result in an increase/decrease in the amount of earnings and/or number of shares. For example, in the question Culver Company has issued 10-year convertible bonds which right now have no impact on basic EPS but if in the future these bond holders exercise their right of conversion, this would result in an increase in number of ordinary shares hence decreasing/diluting the basic EPS. The entities use DEPS to show shareholders the impact of such commitments on the basic EPS to improve their decision making.

So in 2017 none of the bonds were converted therefore no diluted earnings per share is calculated in 2017.

If all of the bonds were converted in 2017 the DEPS would have been calculated as follows:

The formula for calculating DEPS is as follows;

DEPS = (Net income + interest savings) ÷ number of ordinary shares + increase in ordinary shares as a result of conversion.

Tax savings as a result of conversion=$128400 ($2140000×6%). Because if bond holders convert into ordinary shares then Culver company will not have to pay them interest and hence the amount of interest is saved.

Increase in ordinary shares upon conversion= 29960 ($2140000÷$1000=2140 bonds. Each bond is convertible into 14 shares therefore, 2140×14=29960).

Now Lets calculate DEPS as follows;

DEPS = ($296000+$128400) ÷ 91000+29960

DEPS =$424400÷120960

DEPS = $3.5

5 0
3 years ago
Albert is looking for his first-ever summer job. Eleanor was laid off from the gold mine where she worked because of the decreas
Pani-rosa [81]

True , Cyclical unemployment can be negative.

Explanation:

Cyclical unemployment may be negative as well — when the economy hits its productivity and will be in the economic growth cycle process (works outside its PPC), then cyclical unemployment will be negative. The current unemployment rate is below the standard rate of unemployment.

The given statements are different in each scenario.

There are three elements of employment:

• Structural unemployment, which happens when Jobless people are also not qualified to work

• Frictional unemployment, due to the time needed to find one another by job-seekers and accessible employers

• Cyclical unemployment, because of the status of the business cycle unemployment

8 0
3 years ago
Match the definition to the term.
kodGreya [7K]

Answer:

1. A 2. C 3. B

Explanation:

3 0
2 years ago
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