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yawa3891 [41]
3 years ago
15

Is the work shown in the simplification below correct? Explain. csc(t) sec(t) = 1 cos(t) ÷ 1 sin(t) = 1 cos(t) • sin(t) 1

Mathematics
2 answers:
vivado [14]3 years ago
4 0
No, because it states csc(t) x sec(t), not divide, so therefore it would result to (1/cos(t)) x (1/sin(t)) if simplified 
bekas [8.4K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Alright, lets get started.

Te given expression is:

csc (t)   sec (t)

Using reciprocal identity, replacing csc into sin term and sec into cos term

\frac{1}{sin(t)}\frac{1}{cos(t)}

\frac{1}{sin(t)cos(t)}    :     Answer

Hope it will help :)

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Please help me with this question
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Step-by-step explanation:

Given: f'(x) = x^2e^{2x^3} and f(0) = 0

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\displaystyle f(x) = \int f'(x)dx=\int x^2e^{2x^3}dx

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\:\:\:\:du=6x^2dx

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\displaystyle f(x) = \int x^2e^{2x^3}dx = \dfrac{1}{6}\int e^u du

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