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mr_godi [17]
3 years ago
7

38% of what is 152? Show work

Mathematics
2 answers:
marusya05 [52]3 years ago
3 0
Take that certain number we are looking for as 'n'

38% ⇒ 0.38

0.38n = 152

Divide by 0.38

0.38n = 152
 /0.38      /0.38

n = 400

So 38% of 400 is 152.
serg [7]3 years ago
3 0
Ratio and proportion
152/x=38/100
cross multiply
38x= 15200
divide by 38
x= 400

hope this helps
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AleksandrR [38]

Answer:

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3 years ago
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Lerok [7]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

Explanation:-

Given  f(x) = x² - 1

a)

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b)      

put y =  f(x) = x² - 1

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⇒     x = √y+1

⇒ f⁻¹ ( y ) = √y+1      ( ∵ f⁻¹ ( y) =x)

<em>The inverse of given function </em>

<em>               f⁻¹ ( x ) = √x+1</em>

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5 0
2 years ago
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tino4ka555 [31]

We wish to solve the system of linear equations given below:

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I'd suggest you please leave out "LaTex."

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