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olga55 [171]
3 years ago
13

In a binomial experiment with 45 trials, the probability of more than 25 success can be approximated by What is the probability

of success of a single trial of this experiment?
Mathematics
1 answer:
Pani-rosa [81]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

0.6 is the probability of success of a single trial of the experiment

Complete Problem Statement:

In a binomial experiment with 45 trials, the probability of more than 25 successes can be approximated by P(Z>\frac{(25-27)}{3.29})

What is the probability of success of a single trial of this experiment?

Options:

  • 0.07
  • 0.56
  • 0.79
  • 0.6

Step-by-step explanation:

So to solve this, we need to use the binomial distribution. When using an approximation of a binomially distributed variable through normal distribution , we get:

\mu =\frac{np}{\sigma}=\sqrt{np(1-p)}

now,

Z=\frac{X-\mu}{\sigma}

so,

by comparing with P(Z>\frac{(25-27)}{3.29}), we get:

μ=np=27

\sigma=\sqrt{np(1-p)} =3.29

put np=27

we get:

\sigma=\sqrt{27(1-p)} =3.29

take square on both sides:

10.8241=27-27p

27p=27-10.8241

p=0.6

Which is the probability of success of a single trial of the experiment

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VLD [36.1K]

Answer: 23 ft (approximately)

==========================================================

Explanation:

Draw out a diagram as I've done so below. The unknown side x is opposite the reference angle 68. The hypotenuse (ladder length) is 25.

We'll use the sine rule

sin(angle) = opposite/hypotenuse

sin(68) = x/25

25*sin(68) = x

x = 25*sin(68)

x = 23.1795963641697

x = 23

The ladder reaches approximately 23 feet up on the wall.

I'm rounding to the nearest whole number because the other values given to you were also whole numbers. If your teacher says to round otherwise, then follow those instructions instead.

5 0
3 years ago
Gerald earns a base hourly rate of $8 per hour at his job. However, if he works more than 10 hours in a week, he earns $9 per ho
Vika [28.1K]

For 10 hours of job Gerald earns 8*10=80$

For 11 hours Gerald earns 8*10+9n. n - number of working hours over 10 hours.

if Gerald work 16 hours, then he work 6 hours after 10, so n=6

8*10+9*6=80+54=134$

Answer: Gerald earns 134$ if he works 16 hours in one week.

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8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
I need major help now it’s an emergency
irina1246 [14]

Answer:

yes because together the first 2 people made 27 then you would add 8 to that

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
N is a positive integer
Murrr4er [49]

Part (1)

n is some positive integer. Let's say for now that n is even. So n = 2k, for some integer k

This means n-1 = 2k-1 is odd since subtracting 1 from an even number leads to an odd number.

Now multiply n with n-1 to get

n(n-1) = 2k(2k-1) = 2m

where m = k(2k-1) is an integer

The result 2m is even showing that n(n-1) is even

------------

Let's say that n is odd this time. That means n = 2k+1 for some integer k

And also n-1 = 2k+1-1 = 2k showing n-1 is even

Now multiply n and n-1

n(n-1) = (2k+1)(2k) = 2k(2k+1) = 2m

where m = k(2k+1) is an integer

We've shown that n(n-1) is even here as well.

------------

So overall, n(n-1) is even regardless if n is even or if n is odd.

Either n or n-1 will be even. If you multiply an even number with any number, the result will be even.

=======================================================

Part (2)

n is some positive integer

2n is always even since 2 is a factor of 2n

2n+1 is always odd because we're adding 1 to an even number. The sequence of integers goes even,odd,even,odd, etc and it does this forever.

-----------

Another way to see how 2n+1 is odd is to divide 2n+1 over 2 and you'll find that we get (2n+1)/2 = 2n/2+1/2 = n+0.5

The 0.5 at the end is not an integer, so there's no way that (2n+1)/2 is an integer; therefore 2n+1 is odd.

6 0
2 years ago
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Maru [420]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

(3/8) Since they have the same denominator, you can subtract the second numerator from the first so 6 minus 3 is 3. So 3/8

3 0
3 years ago
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