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adell [148]
3 years ago
13

1 16/40 simplified will be greatly appreciated

Mathematics
2 answers:
madreJ [45]3 years ago
7 0
Dividing 116 by 40, we get an answer of 2 with a remainder of 36, which translates to the mixed number 2 36/40. We can simplify the fraction 36/40 to 9/10. This gives us a final answer of 2 9/10
lukranit [14]3 years ago
3 0
1 16/40 simplified, is 1 2/5.
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find the probability exactly 3 successes in 6 trials of a binomial experiment in which the probability of success if 50%. round
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Answer:

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31.2%

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of getting exactly k successes in n trials is given by the probability mass function:



{\displaystyle P(k;n,p)=P(X=k)={\binom {n}{k}}p^{k}(1-p)^{n-k}}

Where p denotes the probability of success.

We are given that  the probability of success if 50%.

i.e. p=\dfrac{1}{2}

also form the question we have:

k=3 and n=6.

Hence the probability of exactly 3 successes in 6 trials is:


{\displaystyle P(3;6,\dfrac{1}{2})=P(X=3)={\binom {6}{3}}(\dfrac{1}{2})^{3}(1-\dfrac{1}{2})^{6-3}}


{\displaystyle P(3;6,\dfrac{1}{2})=P(X=3)={\binom {6}{3}}(\dfrac{1}{2})^{3}(\dfrac{1}{2})^{3}}

{\displaystyle P(3;6,\dfrac{1}{2})=P(X=3)={\binom {6}{3}}(\dfrac{1}{2})^{6}

\binom {6}{3}=20

Hence,

{\displaystyle P(3;6,\dfrac{1}{2})=P(X=3)=20\times (\dfrac{1}{2})^6=\dfrac{5}{16}

In percentage the probability will be:

\dfrac{5}{16}\times 100=31.25\%=31.2\%



8 0
3 years ago
Mr. Clark claims that he has a coin that is weighted so that the probability of heads is 40%. To test this, his students flip th
mrs_skeptik [129]

Answer:

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Answer:

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max2010maxim [7]
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