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Svetllana [295]
3 years ago
11

The price (P) of designer jeans is affected by the supply (S) and the demand (D).

Business
1 answer:
Sedbober [7]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: The answer is A, an increased  demand and no change in supply.

Explanation: I just checked.

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A customer makes a small order, you deliver the goods, and he pays by check. The check clears. He makes another small order, you
Andreyy89
Cheque <span>fraud I believe... </span>
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3 years ago
The beginning inventory at Midnight Supplies and data on purchases and sales for a three-month period ending March 31, are as fo
agasfer [191]

Answer:

Using LIFO:

TOTAL Sales : $19,875,500

COGS = $11,021,250

GROSS PROFIT = $8,853,750

Explanation:

KINDLY CHECK ATTACHED PICTURE

4 0
3 years ago
A married couple is trying to conceive a child. The man works outside during the hot summer months and is also taking medication
Ymorist [56]

Answer:

Hi

The effect on sperm production will depend on the type of medication the person is taking, for example, in the case of antipsychotic medications, in addition to causing involuntary tremors, they block dopamine, a chemical of brain origin that helps with regular responses emotional and controls the brain centers responsible for gratification and pleasure. Similarly, the levels of the hormone prolactin increase, which can cause erectile dysfunction, decreased libido and difficulties reaching orgasm, as well as blocking the action of acetylcholine, which can cause problems in all areas of the body sexual function.

Another type of medications that cause involuntary tremors and that can affect sperm production are statins and fibrates, these medications are likely to interfere with the production of testosterone, estrogens and other sex hormones by affecting the availability of cholesterol, an essential component for certain hormones

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
a 1000 par value 18-year bond with annual coupons is bought to yield an annual effective rate of 5%. the amount for amortization
marta [7]

The book value of the bond at the end of year 10 is 1,160

What is the basis for determining premium amortization?

The bond premium amortization is assumed to be determined using the straight-line basis such that bond premium amortized in each year is the same for 18 years of bond investment, in other words, the year 10 bond premium amortization of 20 is the same for all other years.

Total premium on bond issuance=20*18

total premium on bond issuance=360

bond price issued price=par value+ premium=1000+360=1360

As at the end of the 10th year, bond premium amortized thus far is 20 multiplied by 10 years

bond premium amortized=20*10=200

book value of the bond at the end of year 10=1360-200

book value of the bond at the end of year 10=1,160

Find out more about bond premium on:brainly.com/question/14814327

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3 0
1 year ago
Universal Laser, Inc., just paid a dividend of $3.10 on its stock. The growth rate in dividends is expected to be a constant 6 p
Vadim26 [7]

Answer:

Ans. The current price of the stock is $56.82

Explanation:

Hi, well, the problem here is that we have different discount rates, in other words the required rate of return for the stock changes several times, therefore we are going to break this problem in 3 parts, or bring to present value all the cash flows in 3 steps. Let´s start with the value of the dividends.

We have to use the following formula.

Dn=D_{(n-1)} *(1+g)

Where, D(n-1) is last dividend and Dn is the dividend that we are looking for, for example, D1 = 3.10*(1+0.06)=3.29, D2=3.29*(1+0.06)=3.48, and so forth. The amount to pay on dividends per share is,

D1=3.29; D2=3.48; D3=3.69; D4=3.91; D5=4.15; D6=4.40; D(7)=4.66

Since the first 3 years are to be discounted at a 15%, this is how the formula should look like.

PV(1)=\frac{D1}{(1+r(1))^{1} } +\frac{D2}{(1+r(1))^{2} } +\frac{D3}{(1+r(1))^{3} }

PV(1)=\frac{3.29}{(1+0.15)^{1} } +\frac{3.48}{(1+0.15)^{2} } +\frac{3.69}{(1+0.15)^{3} }=7.92

Now, for the second part, we have to bring all cash flows to year 3 at r(2)=13% and then bring it to present value at r(1)=15%. This is because we have 2 different discount rates, this is as follows.

PV(2)=(\frac{D4}{(1+r(2))^{1} } +\frac{D5}{(1+r(2))^{2} } +\frac{D6}{(1+r(2))^{3} })*\frac{1}{((1+r(1)^{3} }

PV(2)=(\frac{3.91}{(1+0.13)^{1} } +\frac{4.15}{(1+0.13)^{2} } +\frac{4.40}{(1+0.13)^{3} })*\frac{1}{(1+0.15)^{3} } =6.42

Finally, we need to bring all the future cash flows from year 7 and beyond, notice that we need to use the return rate r(3) to bring everything to year 6, then we have to bring it to year 3 and then to present value, everything as follows.

PV(3)=(\frac{D7}{(r(3)-g)} )*(\frac{1}{(1+r(2))^{3} } )*(\frac{1}{(1+r(1))^{3} } )

PV(3)=(\frac{4.66}{(0.11-0.06)} )*(\frac{1}{(1+0.13)^{3} } )*(\frac{1}{(1+0.15)^{3} } )=42.48

So, the price of the stock is PV(1) + PV(2) + PV(3), or:

Price=7.92+6.42+42.48=56.82

Price= $56.82/share

Best of luck.

3 0
3 years ago
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