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Romashka [77]
3 years ago
9

Notes receivable due in 390 days appear on the a.income statement as an expense b.balance sheet in the current liabilities secti

on c.balance sheet in the current assets section d.balance sheet in the noncurrent assets section
Business
1 answer:
N76 [4]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "D": balance sheet in the noncurrent assets section.

Explanation:

Notes receivable are promissory payment documents a company holds for goods or services that we already provided. Notes receivables represent assets for the company holding the notes. The part of the note receivable expected to be collected within one (1) year is recorded as a current asset on the Balance Sheet and the part that is supposed to be collected in more than one year is registered as noncurrent assets on the Balance Sheet.

Thus, <em>if a note receivable is due in 390 days it is registered as a noncurrent asset on the Balance Sheet.</em>

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Parent Corporation purchased land from S1 Corporation for $220,000 on December 26, 20X8. This purchase followed a series of tran
docker41 [41]

Answer:

$160,000

Explanation:

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4 years ago
What rule is important to remember when evaluating risk and return? The higher the risk, the higher the potential return. The hi
andrew-mc [135]

Answer: The higher the risk, the higher the return.

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4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Suppose that a 1-year zero-coupon bond with face value $100 currently sells at $89.75, while a 2-year zero sells at $79.88. You
irina [24]

Answer:

Check the explanation

Explanation:

Let’s assume that a one/1-year zero-coupon bond with facial value of $100 sells for $89.75 as at present, while a 2year zero sells at a figure of $79.88. You are contemplating the purchase of a 2year maturity bond making yearly coupon payments. The facial value of the bond is $100, and the coupon rate is 10% per year.

a. the yield to maturity of the 2-year zero, y2 = (100 / 79.88)1/2 - 1 = 11.89%

b. the yield to maturity of the 1-year zero, y1 = (100 / 89.75) - 1 = 11.42%

Price of a 2 year coupon bond, P0 = 10 / (1 + y1) + 110 / (1 + y2)2 = 10 / (1 + 11.42%) + 110 / (1 + 11.89%)2 = 96.843

Hence, YTM of the 2 year coupon bond = Rate (Period, PMT, PV, FV) = RATE (2,10, -96.843, 100) = 11.86%

c. The forward rate for the second year, F12 = (1 + y2)2 / (1 + y1) - 1 = (1 + 11.89%)2 / (1 + 11.42%) - 1 = 12.36%

d. If the expectations hypothesis is accepted:

(1) the expected price of the coupon bond at the end of the first year, P1 = 110 / (1 + F12) = 110 / (1 + 12.36%) = 97.90

and (2) the expected holding-period return on the coupon bond over the first year = (P1 + Coupon - P0) / P0 = (97.90 + 10 - 96.843) / 96.843 = 11.42%

e. the correct answer to question E is the second option showing: Lower

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3 years ago
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