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2 years ago

Francine solves the system of equations using the linear combination method.

Mathematics

2 answers:

k0ka [10]2 years ago

6 0

<span>
C is the correct answer.</span><span>
</span>

vaieri [72.5K]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Multiply 4x+3y=−1 by 3. Multiply 3x−5y=4 by −4 . Add the resulting equations together.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the simultaneous equation below:

4x+3y=−1 ...(1) × 3

3x−5y=4 ...(2) × -4

Using elimination method to solve the problem,

Before we can eliminate x, the coefficient of x in both equation must have similar whole number as coefficient.

To make the coefficient equal, we will multiply equation 1 by 3 and equation 2 by -4 as shown above

The equations will then become

12x+9y = -3

-12x+20y = -16

Then we will add the resulting simultaneous equations.

The steps that would allow her to eliminate the x terms in the system of equations is to "Multiply 4x+3y=−1 by 3. Multiply 3x−5y=4 by −4 . Add the resulting equations together"

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Opposite:
Just change the sign.
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Even easier.
Just throw away the sign, and you have it.

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2 years ago

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Paha777 [63]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation: What is 18% of 50000?

Y is 18% of 50000

Equation: Y = P% * X

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crimeas [40]

Answer:

a) $X \sim Binom(n=16, p=0.2)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

The expected value is given by this formula:

$E(X) = np=16*0.2=3.2$

b) $P(X=0)=(16C0)(0.2)^{0} (1-0.2)^{16-0}=0.02815$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Part a

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=16, p=0.2)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

The expected value is given by this formula:

$E(X) = np=16*0.2=3.2$

Part b

For this case we want this probability:

$P(X=0)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

And using this function we got:

$P(X=0)=(16C0)(0.2)^{0} (1-0.2)^{16-0}=0.02815$

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2 years ago

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melamori03 [73]

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2 years ago

you are buying a new shirt at the mall. It has a price of $59.99. you have a coupon for 20% off. In new jersey the sales tax is

Musya8 [376]

59.99
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59.99
-12.00=
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47.99
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47.99
+3.96=
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