Ask question

Ask question

All categories

3 years ago

9

Substatution and elimination

1 answer:

Salsk061 [2.6K]3 years ago

6 0

Well using elimination is easy because they basically did it for you.
4x-5y=-6
2x+5y=12
The postive 5y and negative 5y cancel out because -5y plus 5y is zero.
so you are left with
4x=-6
2x=12
Add these together
6x=18
divide both sides by 6 and Solve to find your x
x=3
Now we have to eliminate x to find y.
we multiply the second equation by -2 so it can cancel out so
(2x+5y=12)-2
-4x-10y=24
Add the equations together
4x-5y=-6
-4x-10y=24
You are left with -15y = 30
Solve for y
y = -2
So your final answer for the elimination would be
(3,-2)

You might be interested in

Mary is an years old. What expression represents her age 7 years from now? Two years ago?

Rudiy27

Answer

What expression represents her age 7 years from now?

y =x+7x

Two years ago?

z=y-2x

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0

2 years ago

Write the standard form of the line that passes through the point (1,5) and is parallel to the x -axis. Include your work in you

scoray [572]

Answer:

y = 5

Step-by-step explanation:

A line parallel to the x- axis has equation

y = c

Where c is the value of the y- coordinates the line passes through

The line passes through (1, 5) with y- coordinate of 5, thus

y = 5 ← equation of line

7 0

3 years ago

The one-time fling! Have you ever purchased an article of clothing (dress, sports jacket, etc.), worn the item once to a party,

Mama L [17]

Answer:

$(a)\ P(x = 0) = 0.2725$

$(b)\ P(x \ge 1) =0.7275$

$(c)\ P(x \le 2) = 0.8948$

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

$n = 8$ --- 8 friends

$p = 15\%$ --- proportion that one-time fling

This question is an illustration of binomial probability, and it is represented as:

$P(X = x) = ^nC_x* p^x * (1 - p)^{n-x}$

Solving (a): P(x = 0) --- None has done one time fling

$P(x = 0) = ^8C_0* (15\%)^0 * (1 - 15\%)^{8-0}$

$P(x = 0) = 1* 1 * (1 - 0.15)^{8}$

$P(x = 0) = 0.85^8$

$P(x = 0) = 0.2725$

Solving (b): $P(x \ge 1)$

To do this, we make use of compliment rule:

$P(x = 0) + P(x \ge 1) =1$

Rewrite as:

$P(x \ge 1) =1 - P(x = 0)$

$P(x \ge 1) =1 - 0.2725$

$P(x \ge 1) =0.7275$

Solving (c): $P(x\le 2)$ --- Not more than 2 has one time fling

This is calculated as:

$P(x\le 2) = P(x = 0) + P(x =1) + P(x = 2)$

We have:

$P(x = 0) = 0.2725$

$P(x = 1) = ^8C_1* (15\%)^1 * (1 - 15\%)^{8-1}$

$P(x = 1) = 8* (0.15) * (1 - 0.15)^7$

$P(x = 1) = 0.3847$

$P(x = 2) = ^8C_2* (15\%)^2 * (1 - 15\%)^{8-2}$

$P(x = 2) = 28* (0.15)^2 * (1-0.15)^6$

$P(x = 2) = 0.2376$

So:

$P(x\le 2) = P(x = 0) + P(x =1) + P(x = 2)$

$P(x \le 2) = 0.2725 + 0.3847 + 0.2376$

$P(x \le 2) = 0.8948$

4 0

2 years ago

Given P(A)=0.5P(A)=0.5, P(B)=0.71P(B)=0.71 and P(A\cap B)=0.415P(A∩B)=0.415, find the value of P(A|B)P(A∣B), rounding to the nea

Marysya12 [62]

Answer:

0.585

Step-by-step explanation:

P(A|B) = P(A∩B) / P(B)

P(A|B) = 0.415 / 0.71

P(A|B) = 0.585

8 0

3 years ago

300g of bananas cost £1.80. how much does 1kg cost?

amm1812

Maybe try dividing by 300 and timesing by 1000?

4 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers