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Katena32 [7]
3 years ago
8

Using account analysis, what type of cost is the fee the airline company charges for your bags assuming a typical policy is $25

if the bag weighs between 0 and 50 lbs.; $75 if the bag weighs between 50 and 75 lbs. and $125 if the bag weighs between 75 and 100 lbs
Business
1 answer:
Serga [27]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Step cost

Explanation:

Airline company charging for bags is a type of step cost. Step costs are costs that remain fixed within a stipulated range, thereafter which it changes.

For a particular level of activity, cost remains the same. After this level is crossed, cost is increased to accommodate additional charges that the company has to bear.

In this case, cost remains same between 0 and 50 lbs weight of bag that is $25. If the weight of bag is beyond 50 lbs, then charges increase to $75. This is an example of step cost.

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Wage discrimination 
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As the number of firms in an oligopoly increases, a. the total quantity of output produced by firms in the market gets closer to
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Answer:

A is the correct answer.

Explanation:

Oligopoly is the market form in which a small number of large sellers dominate. It results in the reduction of the competition and leads to higher prices for consumers. they have their market structure. In oligopoly each firm stays aware of others,  hence their decisions influence others and vice versa. The developed economies are dominated by Oligopolies. For example, if the total market share of the American telecom companies (Verizon wireless, AT and T and T mobile ) is combined, it comes out to be more than ninety percent.

4 0
3 years ago
Patricia made her career planning timeline in the year 2007. In what year
amm1812

Answer:

<h2>A. 2007 </h2>

Explanation:

Hope this is helpful

3 0
3 years ago
Ms. Pay, who has a 40.8 percent marginal tax rate on interest income (37 percent income tax 3.8 percent Medicare contribution ta
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Answer:

After tax cash flow    $44,281.60

After tax cash flow   ($30,518.40)

After tax cash flow   $8856.32

Explanation:

In the first case when the interest income of $74,800 ,the after-tax cash flow would be taxed as follows"

before tax cash flow   $74,800.00

tax at 40.8%*$74,800 ($30,518.40)

After tax cash flow      $44,281.60  

If the entire interest income is re-invested after tax cash flow is computed thus:

before tax cash flow   $0

tax at 40.8%*$74,800 ($30,518.40)

After tax cash flow      ($30,518.40)

If the entire interest income represents the original  issue discount,which is the difference between the face value and the issue price,after tax cash  flow is computed thus:

The OID is taxable as if it accrues over the duration of the investment(bonds),hence a portion of the OID would be assessed to tax each year (assume the duration of investment is 5 years)

Annual portion of OID=$74,800/5

before tax cash flow    $14,960 .00

tax at 40.8%*$74,800  ($6103.68 )

After tax cash flow         $8856.32

After tax cash flow      $44,281.60  

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Answer:

Correct option is (d)

Explanation:

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