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vivado [14]
4 years ago
12

Sell more than you buy and prosper. If you export more than you import, you will be rich.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Stella [2.4K]4 years ago
4 0
1: groups of prominent citizens who wrote back and forth between colonies
2: document that gave the english rights they had been denied
3: sell more than you buy
4: had to buy british stamp for every price of printed paper
5: taxes on lead glass, paper, paint, tea
6: colonists dresses up as indians, climbed on a ship, threw 342 chests of tea
7: a hothead
8: started committees of correspondence
9: group of colonists who formed a secret society
10: wrote pamphlets about war
11: roused many colonists to demand independence
12: member of virginia house of burgesses
13: american who wanted to be free of british rule
14: house where soldiers lived
15: american who supported the king
16: group of delegates who meet for discussion
17: british soldier during american revolution
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Let X1 and X2 be two random variables following Binomial distribution Bin(n1,p) and Bin(n2,p), respectively. Assume that X1 and
ryzh [129]

Answer:

a) X1+X2 have distribution Bi(n1+n2, p)

b)

P(X1+X2 = 1 | X2 = 0) =  np(1-p)ⁿ¹⁻¹

P(X1+X2 = 1| X2 = 1) = (1-p)ⁿ¹

P(X1 + X2 = 1) = (1-p)ⁿ¹ * np(1-p)ⁿ²⁻¹+ (1-p)ⁿ²*np(1-p)ⁿ¹-¹

Step-by-step explanation:

Since both variables are independent but they have the same probability parameter, you can interpret that like if the experiment that models each try in both variables is the same. When you sum both random variables toguether, what you obtain as a result is the total amount of success in n1+n2 tries of the same experiment, thus X1+X2 have distribution Bi(n1+n2, p).

b)

Note that, if X2 = k, then X1+X2 = 1 is equivalent to X1 = 1-k. Since X1 and X2 are independent, then P(X1+X2 = 1| X2 = K) = P(X1=1-k|X2=k) = P(X1 = 1-k).

If k = 0, then this probability is equal to P(X1 = 1) = np(1-p)ⁿ¹⁻¹

If k = 1, then it is equal to P(X1 = 0) = (1-p)ⁿ¹

Thus,

P(X1+X2 = 1) = P(X1+X2 = 1| X2 = 1) * P(X2=1) + P(X1+X2 = 1| X2 = 0) * P(X2 = 0) = (1-p)ⁿ¹ * np(1-p)ⁿ²⁻¹+ (1-p)ⁿ²*np(1-p)ⁿ¹-¹

4 0
3 years ago
A cake that costs $32 is on sale for 15% off and there are no taxes. Explain why the expression
Darya [45]

Answer:

$27.2

Step-by-step explanation:

A cake that costs $32 is on sale for 15% off and there are no taxes. Explain why the expression (0.85).32 represents the final price of the cake in dollars.

This is explained in the calculation below

= A cake that costs $32 is on sale for 15% off

The amount off the cake is calculated as

= 15% of $32

= 15/100 × 32

= $4.8

The amount he is paying for the cake =>$32 - $4.8

= $27.2

The above expression is obtained as

(0.85).32

= (100% - 15%) × 32

=( 1 - 0.15) × 32

= 0.85 × 32

= $27.2

The final price of the cake = $27.2

7 0
3 years ago
identify the solution of the equation x divided by 7 equals 3: 20,21,20 btw this is middle school work. :)
Marrrta [24]

Answer:

sorry,,, hvjhvhj jhvfv vugeouib

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
What two mixed numbers have a sum of 3
barxatty [35]
The answer is one and 1/3 + one and 2/3.
To get this answer, we must first need to understand improper fractions are (i guess) an 'uglier' version of mixed numbers because improper fractions can be converted to mixed numbers and vice versa making them pretty much the same thing. 
So an improper fraction is when the numerator is bigger than denominator.
(we also need to understand that for example: 12/3 is the same as 12 divided by 3)
So, what divided by what gives 3? Well 3*3=9 so if 9 is divided by 3 it will equal 3. Therefore we have an improper fraction of 9/3.

The basics of addition in fraction is when the numerator is the same, just add the top. So for simplicity's sake we will make out sum where both improper fraction's denominator is 3. So... what plus what equals 9? 4+5. 4 and 5 are chosen because both numbers are bigger than 3.
so now we have:
4/3 + 5/3
Now just turn the improper fraction into a mixed number and we get the answer of: one and 1/3 + <span>one and 2/3, which equals 3</span>
4 0
3 years ago
What is 7 1/5 - 6 2/5 =?
CaHeK987 [17]

In my opinion, I like using improper fractions, but that's up to you:

7 1/5 = 36/5

6 2/5 = 32/5

36/5 - 32/5 = 4/5

6 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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