Answer:
2+6+8+12+12=40
40 divided by 5=8
6+2+0+4+4=16
16 divided by 5=3.2
MAD=3.2
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
both angles are the same, so you can use it interchangeably in proving.
But i suggest you to mantain only one, because it's easier to understand and it looks better.
Might have to experiment a bit to choose the right answer.
In A, the first term is 456 and the common difference is 10. Each time we have a new term, the next one is the same except that 10 is added.
Suppose n were 1000. Then we'd have 456 + (1000)(10) = 10456
In B, the first term is 5 and the common ratio is 3. From 5 we get 15 by mult. 5 by 3. Similarly, from 135 we get 405 by mult. 135 by 3. This is a geom. series with first term 5 and common ratio 3. a_n = a_0*(3)^(n-1).
So if n were to reach 1000, the 1000th term would be 5*3^999, which is a very large number, certainly more than the 10456 you'd reach in A, above.
Can you now examine C and D in the same manner, and then choose the greatest final value? Safe to continue using n = 1000.
The number of miles for which the car has been driven if one paid $122.50 as in the task content is; 2.5 miles.
<h3>For how many miles was the car driven?</h3>
It follows from the task content that the total amount paid was; $122.50.
Hence, after subtraction the constant charges, for the day and for gas, the remainder is;
$122.50 - $50 - $35
= $37.50.
Ultimately, if the charge per mile is $15, then the number of miles driven is; $37.50/$15
= 2.5 miles.
Read more on cost per unit;
brainly.com/question/19493296
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Is there supposed to be an equation that follows? Can I see the entire question?
