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Nostrana [21]
3 years ago
6

Convert 12,345 inches per minute to feet per hour.

Mathematics
2 answers:
gogolik [260]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

61,725 feet per hour.

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiply the speed value by 5  to get the feet per hour.

12,345 * 60 minutes every hour, divide the feet into inches, and then multiply the total number by the time you have.

1 Inches Per Minute to Feet Per Hour = 5

1 Inch per Minute:

Inches per Minutes. In SI units approximately 0.000423333 meters per second.

1 Foot per Hour:

Feet per Hours. In SI units approximately 8.4666667 x 10-5 meters per second.

BlackZzzverrR [31]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: 61725

Listen, I'm happy to help you cheat, but couldn't you have just ran this through a calculator? It's not that hard.

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Answer:

The expected value of the lottery is $80

Step-by-step explanation:

To get the expected value, we have to multiply each outcome by its probability

Then we proceed to add up all of these to get the expected value of the lottery

we have this as ;;

125(0.2) + 100(0.3) + 50(0.5)

= 25 + 30 + 25 = $80

3 0
3 years ago
Solve the equation below for x. cx - 4 = 7
ra1l [238]

Answer:

x = \frac{11}{c}

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

cx - 4 = 7 ( add 4 to both sides )

cx = 11 ( isolate x by dividing both sides by c )

x = \frac{11}{c}

8 0
3 years ago
What does 5/12 - 1/3 equal?
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Answer: 1/12

Step-by-step explanation:

5/12 - 1/3

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8 0
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dimulka [17.4K]
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7 0
2 years ago
g In American roulette, the wheel has the 38 numbers, 00, 0, 1, 2, ..., 34, 35, and 36, marked on equally spaced slots. If a pla
earnstyle [38]

Answer:

The expected value for the player to play one time is -$0.05.

Step-by-step explanation:

The expected value of a random variable <em>X</em> is given by the formula:

E(X)=\sum x\cdot P(X)

The American roulette wheel has the 38 numbers, {i = 00, 0, 1, 2, ..., 34, 35, and 36}, marked on equally spaced slots.

The probability that the ball stops on any of these 38 numbers is same, i.e.

P (X = i) = \frac{1}{38}.

It is provided that a a player bets $1 on a number.

If the player wins, the player keeps the dollar and receives an additional $35.

And if the player losses, the dollar is lost too.

So, the probability distribution is as follows:

<em>     X </em>: $35      -$1

P (<em>X</em>) :   \frac{1}{38}         \frac{37}{38}  

Compute the expected value of the game as follows:

E(X)=\sum x\cdot P(X)

         =[\$35\times \frac{1}{38}]+[-\$1\times \frac{37}{38}]\\\\=\frac{\$35-\$37}{38}\\\\=-\frac{\$2}{38}\\\\=-\frac{1}{19}\\\\=-0.052632\\\\\approx -\$0.05

Thus, the expected value for the player to play one time is -$0.05.

7 0
3 years ago
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