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2 years ago

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The average person drinks 1 pint of milk a day. At this rate, how many gallons will a person drink in a leap year (366 days)...A

. 45 GALLONS , B.45 1/2, C. 45 3/4, and D. 46 gallons.

2 answers:

rosijanka [135]2 years ago

4 0

The correct answer is C. 45 3/4 or 45.75 gallons of milk in one leap year.

1 Pint = 0.12500000713 Gallons.

forsale [732]2 years ago

3 0

The answer is 45 3/4

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1 simply 1

Step-by-step explanation:

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Sven has $1 and a dime in his pile. Dayna has 11 dimes in her pile. If Sven gives Dayna $1 and Dayna gives Sven 10 dimes, will t

viva [34]

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Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

Because a dollar and a dime and 11 dimes are equal in value ($1.10)

And they exchange 1 dollar and 10 dimes which is also the same amount. So they will be the same.

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2 years ago

Elementary Algebra Skill

mr_godi [17]

The answer is a = $\frac{4}{-3}$

Step-by-step explanation:

<em>1. Convert the mixed fraction to an improper fraction</em>

To find the numerator, multiply the denominator by the whole number and add the numerator to it.

The denominator remains the same.

So, 2 $\frac{2}{3}$ will be $\frac{8}{3}$

<em>2. Now the equation is,</em>

$\frac{3}{2}$ a - $\frac{4}{3}$ a = $\frac{10}{3}$ + $\frac{8}{3}$ a

<em>3. Take LCM on both sides. </em>

For the left side, multiply the first fraction by $\frac{3}{3}$ and multiply the second fraction by $\frac{2}{2}$

$\frac{3*3}{2*3}$ a - $\frac{4*3}{3*3}$ a = $\frac{10+8a}{3}$

<em>4. Solve by making a the subject</em>

$\frac{9a-8a}{6}$ = $\frac{10+8a}{3}$

$\frac{a}{6}$ = $\frac{10+8a}{3}$

$\frac{3a}{6}$ =10+8a

$\frac{a}{2}$ = 10 + 8a

a = 2(10 + 8a)

a = 20 + 16a

a-16a = 20

-15a = 20

a = $\frac{20}{-15}$

a = $\frac{4}{-3}$

Therefore, the answer is a = $\frac{4}{-3}$

Keyword: Equations

Learn more about equations at

#LearnwithBrainly

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3 years ago

solo el 20% de los empleados de la población civil que está en una base militar restringida porta su identificación personal. Si

prisoha [69]

Usando la distribución binomial, hay una probabilidad de 0.8926 = 89.26% de que el guardia de seguridad encuentre al menos uno en la base militar restringida.

<h3>¿Qué es la distribución binomial?</h3>

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

Los parámetros son:

n es el número de ensayos.

p es la probabilidad de éxito en un ensayo

x es el número de éxitos

En este problema, hay que:

20% de los empleados de la población civil que está en una base militar restringida porta su identificación personal, o sea p = 0.2.

Llegan 10 empleados, o sea, n = 10.

La probabilidad de que el guardia de seguridad encuentre al menos uno en la base militar restringida es dada por:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)$

En que:

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{10,0}.(0.2)^{0}.(0.8)^{10} = 0.1074$

Por eso:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.1074 = 0.8926$

Hay una probabilidad de 0.8926 = 89.26% de que el guardia de seguridad encuentre al menos uno en la base militar restringida.

Puede-se aprender más a cerca de la distribución binomial en brainly.com/question/25132113

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2 years ago