Question

CAN someone please check this i will give out brainliest !

Answer 1

Reason 2 should be "corresponding angle postulate" because angle 1 and angle 2 are corresponding angles. They are on the top side of the parallel lines and they are on the same side of the transversal line. The fact we have parallel lines means the two corresponding angles have the same measure.

Reason 3 should be "angle congruence postulate" leading us from the congruent notation shown in statement 2 to the equality notation in statement 3.

In short, you have reason 2 and reason 3 swapped. Reason 5 is in the proper place.