Answer:
Explanation:
Using future annuity formula
Fv = Pmt ( (1+r)ⁿ -1 )/ r
+ 1 = (1+r)ⁿ
In ( + 1) = n In ( 1+r)
n = In ( + 1) / In ( 1 + r)
FV, future value = $10,000, Pmt, periodic payment per year = $1,100, r rate = 11.82% = 0.1182 and n = number of years
n = 0.7297 / 0.11172 = 6.53 years approx 7 years
the last year payment will actually be less than $1,100
Answer:
$9,000 unfavorable
Explanation:
The computation of the total fixed overhead variance is shown below:
= Actual fixed overhead costs - Budgeted fixed overhead
where,
Budgeted fixed overhead is $360,000
And, the Actual fixed overhead cost is computed below:
= Actual fixed overhead × Actual production ÷ budgeted production
= $360,000 × 11,700 units ÷ 12,000 units
= $351,000
Now put these values to the above formula
So, the value would equal to
= $351,000 - $360,000
= $9,000 unfavorable
Answer:
<u>(D) inventory obsolescence</u>
Explanation:
- It is known as the phase where the inventory is at the end or final stage of its product cycle. This inventory can be sold or used for the long run and is then not expected or liable to be given or sold in the future by the company.
- As she doesn't know whether the inventory is missing or does not know if it has been broken or stolen, she can note this down and thus can asset for the criteria following the valid integrity testing.
If that happen, other investors that bet for the opposite cause of your investment would be the one that gained that money, and you will still able to keep that stocks to collect dividend as long as you don't sell it.
(this circumtances won't happen if the reason you lost the money is the firm going into bankruptcy)
d) $16.92
Each paycheck is $22,000/26 times per year = $846.15
Your company will match up to 2% of this. .02*$846.15= $16.92
You should contribute this amount each pay period in order to take full advantage of the "company match" because your company will add that much money into your retirement account on top of what you pay in.
