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Shtirlitz [24]
3 years ago
12

Hey can you please help me posted picture of question

Mathematics
1 answer:
statuscvo [17]3 years ago
3 0
The correct answer is the option A.

 The explanation is shown below:

 The option A is theoretical probability, because they did not make any experiment to determine the probability, while in the others options, they had to make equal tests for to determine the probability.

 For example, Lisa had to attempted 25 basketball free throws to determine which one them she could make and, then, determine the probability. While Kelli did not have to make any test.
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Zina [86]

Answer:

The measure of Angle A is 45.5 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to find the measure of the angle A, add it to the measures of angle B and C. Since it is an isosceles triangle, we know that B and C have the same measure. Then we set this equal to 180.

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) All human blood can be typed as one of O, A, B, or AB. The distribution of the type varies a bit with race. For African-Americ
ivann1987 [24]

Answer:

The correct option is 1 - [(0.8)¹⁰+10*0.2*(0.8)⁹]= 0.6242

Step-by-step explanation:

Hello!

Given the distribution of probabilities for blood types for African-Americans:

O: 0.4

A: 0.2

B: 0.32

AB: 0.08

A random sample of 10 African-American is chosen, what is the probability that 2 or more of them have Type A blood?

Let X represent "Number of African-Americans with Type A blood in a sample of 10.

Then you have two possible outcomes,

"Success" the person selected has Type A blood, with an associated probability p= 0.2

"Failure" the selected person doesn't have Type A blood, with an associated probability q= 0.8

(You can calculate it as "1-p" or adding all associated probabilities of the remaining blood types: 0.4+0.32+0.08)

Considering, that there is a fixed number of trials n=10, with only two possible outcomes: success and failure. Each experimental unit is independent of the rest and the probability of success remains constant p=0.2, you can say that this variable has a Binomial distribution:

X~Bi(n;p)

You can symbolize the asked probability as:

P(X≥2)

This expression includes the probabilities: X=2, X=3, X=4, X=5, X=6, X=7, X=8, X=9, X=10

And it's equal to

1 - P(X<2)

Where only the probabilities of X=0 and X=1 are included.

There are two ways of calculating this probability:

1) Using the formula:

P(X)= \frac{n!}{(n-X)!X!} *p^{x} * q^{n-x}

With this formula, you can calculate the point probability for each value of X=x₀ ∀ x₀=1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10

So to reach the asked probability you can:

a) Calculate all probabilities included in the expression and add them:

P(X≥2)= P(X=2) + P(X=3) + P(X=4) + P(X=5) + P(X=6) + P(X=7) + P(X=8) + P(X=9) + X=10

b) Use the complement rule and calculate only two probabilities:

1 - P(X<2)= 1 - [P(X=0)+P(X=1)]

2) Using the tables of the binomial distribution.

These tables have the cumulative probabilities listed for n: P(X≤x₀)

Using the number of trials, the probability of success, and the expected value of X you can directly attain the corresponding cumulative probability without making any calculations.

>Since you are allowed to use the complement rule I'll show you how to calculate the probability using the formula:

P(X≥2) = 1 - P(X<2)= 1 - [P(X=0)+P(X=1)] ⇒

P(X=0)= \frac{10!}{(10-)0!0!} *0.2^{0} * 0.8^{10-0}= 0.1074

P(X=1)= \frac{10!}{(10-1)!1!} *0.2^{1} * 0.8^{10-1}= 0.2684

⇒ 1 - (0.1074+0.2684)= 0.6242

*-*

Using the table:

P(X≥2) = 1 - P(X<2)= 1 - P(X≤1)

You look in the corresponding table of n=10 p=0.2 for P(X≤1)= 0.3758

1 - P(X≤1)= 1 - 0.3758= 0.6242

*-*

Full text in attachment.

I hope it helps!

8 0
3 years ago
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