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Morgarella [4.7K]
3 years ago
8

Peyton's Palace has net income of $13.4 million on sales revenue of $114 million. Total assets were $80 million at the beginning

of the year and $88 million at the end of the year. Calculate Peyton's return on assets, profit margin, and asset turnover ratios. (Round your final answers to 1 decimal place. Enter your answers in millions. (i.e., $5,500,000 should be entered as 5.5).)
Business
1 answer:
Romashka [77]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Return on Assets = 159.52%

Profit Margin = 11.75%

Asset Turnover Ratio = 1.36 times

Explanation:

The computation of return on assets, profit margin, and asset turnover ratios is shown below:-

a. Return on assets

Average Total Assets = Assets in the beginning + Assets at the end ÷ 2

= ($80 million + $88 million) ÷ 2

= $168 ÷ 2

= $84 million

Return on Assets = Annual Net Income ÷ Average Total assets

= $13.4 million ÷ $84 million

= $159.52 million

b. Profit Margin

Profit Margin = Net Income ÷ Net Sales

= $13.4 million ÷ $114 million

= 11.75%

c. Assets turnover ratio

Average Total Assets = Assets in the beginning + Assets at the end ÷ 2

= ($80 million + $88 million) ÷ 2

= $168 ÷ 2

= $84 million

Asset Turnover Ratio = Net Sales ÷ Average Total assets

= $114 million ÷ $84 million

= 1.36 times

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trapecia [35]

Answer:

forces of production

     

Explanation:

Production forces relate to a concept used within the political economy which applies to the tangible means and manufacturing techniques for which workers create value and turn assets into selling things.

Production powers involve technical equipment and natural resources, and also the competitive capacities of manufacturing forces expressed by energy, skill, and information. This applies to a fusion of labor resources with a human labor force in Karl Marx own criticism of political philosophy.

Thus, from the above we can conclude that the conclude that the correct option is B.

4 0
3 years ago
A firm in a perfectly competitive market has a fixed cost of $1,000 and a variable cost of $500 while it is earning the revenue
grin007 [14]

Answer:

Firm should not shut down, as it is able to cover its Average Variable Cost

Explanation:

Perfect Competition firms in Short Run : The firms produce even if their average revenue (price) < their average total costs (AC). They continue production until Average variable cost (AVC) ≥ per unit price (P) i.e average revenue (AR). This is called Shut Down Point. P lower beyond AVC implies that firm won't continue even in short run.

Given : Variable Cost (VC) = 500 ; Revenue (R) = 510

Average Variable Costs & Average Revenue are variable costs & revenue, per unit quantity. AVC = VC / Q ; AR (P) = R / Q

R i.e 510 > VC i.e 500

So, R/ Q i.e AR is also > VC / Q i.e AVC

Since AVC > AR (P), firm should not shut down

8 0
3 years ago
The Appleton entity established a $200 Petty Cash fund on June 1, 200X. On June 30, 200X the fund had $45 in cash and the follow
Rashid [163]

Answer:

A. DR Petty Cash 200; CR Cash 200

Explanation:

We are asked for the entry on June 1st to stablish the petty cash fund.

The data on June 30th is irrelevant for this question.

We will only work with the information of june 1st

The ptty cash, will be an asset account. To crease an asset account we will debit it.

On credit side, we need to show how is this asset generated. In this case, with another asset, cash. Cash will be credited to show that 200 cash from the main account has been moved into the petty fund

4 0
4 years ago
A company issued a short-term note payable to a bank with a stated 12 percent rate of interest . The bank charged a .5% loan ori
Mandarinka [93]

Answer:

17%

Explanation:

If a company issued a short-term note payable to a bank with a stated 12 percent rate of interest and in addition the bank charged a .5% loan origination fee and remitted the balance to the company. The effective interest rate paid by the company in this transaction would be 17%

The effective annual interest rate is <u>the interest rate that is actually earned or paid on an investment, loan</u> or other financial product.

Hence, since the company is both paying the initial 5% and the later 12%, effectively the company is paying 17% on the note payable.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Exercise Bicycle Company is expected to pay a dividend in year 1 of $1.20, a dividend in year 2 of $1.50, and a dividend in year
prisoha [69]

Answer:

E.  $40.68

Explanation:

The computation of the stock worth today is shown below:

= (Dividend in year 1 ÷ 1 + required rate of return^number of years ) + (Dividend in year 2 ÷ 1 + required rate of return^number of years) + (Dividend in year 3 ÷ 1 + required rate of return^number of years)  + (Dividend in year 3 ÷ 1 + required rate of return^number of years) × (1 + growth rate) ÷ (required rate of return - growth rate)

= $1.2 ÷ 1.14 + $1.5 ÷ 1.14^2 + $2 ÷ 1.14^3 + $2 ÷ 1.14^3 × (1 + 10%) ÷ (14%-10%)

= $40.68

We simply applied the above formula

3 0
3 years ago
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