Answer:
Share price : $ 56.23
Explanation:
CAPM
risk free = 0.05
market rate = 0.11
premium market = (market rate - risk free) 0.06
beta(non diversifiable risk) = 1.64
Ke 0.14840
Now, we solve for the present value of the future dividends:
year dividend* present value**
1 2.91 2.53
2 3.31 2.51
3 3.78 2.49
4 4.31 2.48
4 80.38 46.22
TOTAL 56.23
*Dividends will be calculate as the previous year dividends tiems the grow rate
during the first four year is 14%
then, we calcualte the present value of all the future dividends growing at 9% using the dividend grow model:
(4.31 x 1.09) / (0.1484 - 0.09) = 80.38
Then we discount eahc using the present value of a lump sum:
We discount using the CAPM COst of Capital of 14.84%
last we add them all to get the share price: $ 56.23
Answer:
Operating Leasing
Explanation:
Legal title is retained by the seller, buyer enjoys equitable title (during the lease contract duration) of the property (e. g. using land, leased buildings or machinery for the business needs),
Answer: The cost of capital for a firm with no debt in its capital structure.
Explanation:
Leverage in finance refers to the use of debt. Unlevered capital therefore would refer to capital that is without debt which means that an unlevered cost of capital is one with no debt in its capital structure.
Companies with such a capital structure derive their capital 100% from Equity and as such do not pay interest. This means however, that they will not benefit from the tax shields that interest payments offer.
Answer 5,000 is the maximum dividend that can be paid to shareholders.
Explanation:
Answer:
The idea is that one variable is the effect of another variable or, to say it another way, that one variable precedes and/or causes another. The dependent variable is the variable to be explained (the 'effect”). The independent variable is the variable expected to account for (the “cause” of) the dependent variable.
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