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Furkat [3]
3 years ago
6

In Year 1, the actual budget deficit was $150 billion and the cyclically adjusted deficit was $125 billion. In Year 2, the actua

l budget deficit was $130 billion and the cyclically adjusted deficit was $125 billion. It can be concluded that from Year 1 to Year 2 a.real GDP increased. b.fiscal policy became less expansionary. c.full employment was attained d.real GDP decreased.
Business
1 answer:
olasank [31]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

b.fiscal policy became less expansionary

Explanation:

Because, the actual budget deficit (government spending less taxes and other) decreases the State decrease theri participation in the aconomy by the 20 millons difference.

This means their welfare programs, military, political, public works and other spending decreases. It could also mean the taxes were raised to make up for the deficit.

In both, the government policy contracts a little bit.

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Internal control is a process designed to ensure
Sauron [17]

Answer:

Internal Control is designed to ensure all of the items described in the answer.

Explanation:

Internal control refers to the control measures adopted by an entity so as to ensure compliance with legal framework, check frauds and errors and for reliable financial reporting.

Compliance procedures are the processes designed to check whether internal controls exist in an organization and if they do, whether such controls are operating effectively.

For e.g biometric authentication with regard to attendance keeps a check on the number of employees actually working during a period and eliminates the possibility of dummy names in the attendance records. This is an example of internal control i.e control measures created by organization itself.

8 0
3 years ago
When is a goodwill impairment loss recognized? a. Annually on a systematic and rational basis. b. Never When both the fair value
gulaghasi [49]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "C": When both the fair value of a reporting unit and its associated implied goodwill fall below their respective carrying values.

Explanation:

Impairment Loss is the decrease in an asset's net carrying value that exceeds the future undisclosed cash flow it should generate. The net carrying value is an asset's acquisition cost minus depreciation. Impairment occurs when a company sells or abandons an asset that is no longer beneficial.

Thus, <em>a goodwill impairment loss is recognized when the goodwill's net carrying value is below its fair value and the expected cash flow it was to generate.</em>

7 0
3 years ago
AB Builders, Inc., has 22-year bonds outstanding with a par value of $2,000 and a quoted price of 106.657. The bonds pay interes
Aloiza [94]

Answer:

7.32%

Explanation:

<em>The price of a bond is the present of its interest payment and the present value of redemption value (RV</em>

Present value of the Redemption Value (RV) =

FV× (1+r/2)^(-2×n)

FV- 2000, r- yield rate, r/2= 6.74%/2 = 3.37%, n-22

=2000× (1.0337)^(-2×22)

= 465.233

Present Value of the coupon payment =Price of bond - PV of RV

                          = (106.657% × 2000) - 465.233

                         =    $1667.90

PV of coupon payment= A × (1-(1+r)^(-2×n)

A- semiannual coupon payment, r -yield

   1667.90 = A × (1-(1.0337)^(-2*22))/0.0337

    1,667.90   = A × 22.7710

A = 1,667.90/22.7710

A= 73.246

Annual coupon payment = 2× 73.246=  146.493

Annual coupon rate = coupon payment/ face value

                                = (146.493/2,000 )× 100

                                = 7.32%

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
On June 30, 2020, Sarasota Company issued $3,340,000 face value of 14%, 20-year bonds at $3,842,540, a yield of 12%. Sarasota us
ki77a [65]

Answer:

1) June 30, 2020, bonds are issued at a premium

Dr Cash 3,842,540

    Cr Bonds payable 3,340,000

    Cr Premium on bonds payable 502,540

2) December 31, 2020, first coupon payment

Dr Interest expense 230,552.40

Dr Premium on bonds payable 3,247.60

    Cr Cash 233,800

amortization of bond premium = ($3,842,540 x 6%) - $233,800 = -$3,247.60

3) June 30, 2021, second coupon payment

Dr Interest expense 230,357.54

Dr Premium on bonds payable 3,442.46

    Cr Cash 233,800

amortization of bond premium = ($3,839,292.40 x 6%) - $233,800 = -$3,442.46

4) December 31, 2021, third coupon payment

Dr Interest expense 230,151

Dr Premium on bonds payable 3,649

    Cr Cash 233,800

amortization of bond premium = ($3,835,849.94 x 6%) - $233,800 = -$3,649

5 0
3 years ago
On December 1, 2016, Fine Dining Products borrowed $84,000 on a 12%, five-year note with annual installment payments of $16,800
kenny6666 [7]

Answer:

$16,800

Explanation:

The amount of the note payable as the current position of long term notes payable on the  balance sheet as of December 31, 2016 can be calculated by just dividing the principal amount by the number of periods it has been borrowed for

Calculation: 84000/5 = $16,800

3 0
3 years ago
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