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nasty-shy [4]
3 years ago
9

I don't know how to do this. I forget plz help

Mathematics
2 answers:
Leno4ka [110]3 years ago
3 0
Ok so 
0.5%=0.005
0.005x=8
x=8/0.005
x=1600
8 is 0.5% of 1600
Hope this helps
If u still don't understand plz message me
If u understand plz brainlest me
If you continue with the same formula with a different problem then you will get it correct 
Thank you!
Grace [21]3 years ago
3 0
1600 is your answer I hope this helped
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Which of the following lines are parallel to 2Y - 3X = 4?
dimulka [17.4K]

Answer:

B. Y = 6/4 X

Step-by-step explanation:

Well to find its parallel line we need to put,

2y - 3x = 4 into slope-intercept.

+3x to both sides

2y = 3x + 4

Now we divide everything by 2,

y = 3/2x + 2

So a line that is parallel to the given line will have the same slope but different y intercept, meaning we can cross out choices A and C.

To check look at the image below ↓

<em>Thus,</em>

<em>answer choice B. Y = 6/4 X is correct.</em>

<em />

<em>Hope this helps :)</em>

4 0
3 years ago
Pls explain the easiest way you an this will help me Thanks XD
Ostrovityanka [42]
The ratio is 4:3:1
let the ratio be 4x:3x:x
according to the question,4x+3x+x=40
8x=40
x=5
therefore amount of gravel=x*4=5*4=20m^{3}
amount of sand=5*3=15m^{3}
amount of cement=5*1=5m^{3}
7 0
3 years ago
Please help!!
Morgarella [4.7K]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:(a)

1.65p+1.36j=118.17 and p+j=79

We can say p=79-j and sub this value in first equation

1.65(79-j)+1.36j=118.17

130.35-1.65j+1.36j=118.17

-0.29=-12.18

j=42, p=79-j, p=79-42=37

(b)

1.65(37)=61.05 and 1.36(42)=57.12

Sanchez class earned more selling pies.

(c)

61.05-57.12=3.93

So Sanchez class made $3.93 more than Kelley class.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
State the opposite -5x
eimsori [14]

Answer:

5x

Step-by-step explanation:

since opposite of negative is positive

5 0
3 years ago
Suppose you have an experiment where you flip a coin three times. You then count the number of heads. a.)State the random variab
WITCHER [35]

Answer:

a) X=number of heads observed when flipped the coin 3 times

b) the probability distribution is

P(X=x) = 3/4 * (1/[(3-x)!*x!)])

or

P(X)=1/8 for x=0 and x=3 and P(X)=3/8 for x=1 and x=2

Step-by-step explanation:

the random variable will be X=number of heads observed when flipped the coin 3 times . Since the result from each flip is independent of the others , then X has a binomial probability distribution , such that

P(X=x)= n!/[(n-x)!*x!)*p^x * (1-p)^(n-x)

where

n= number of times the coin is flipped = 3

p= probability of getting heads in a flip of the coin = 1/2 (assuming that the coin is fair)

therefore

P(X=x)= 3!/[(3-x)!*x!)*(1/2)^(3-x) * (1/2)^x = 3!/[(3-x)!*x!) * (1/2)³ = 3/4 * (1/[(3-x)!*x!)])

P(X=x)= 3/4 * (1/[(3-x)!*x!)])   , for x=[0,1,2,3]

for x=0 and x=3 → P(X)=3/4 * (1/[3!*0!)]) = 1/8

for x=1 and x=2 → P(X)=3/4 * (1/[2!*1!)]) = 3/8

we can verify that is correct since the sum of all the probabilities from x=0 to x=3 is  1/8 +  3/8+ 3/8+ 1/8 = 1

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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