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rjkz [21]
3 years ago
6

When Samuel commutes to work, the amount of time it takes him to arrive is normally distributed with a mean of 32 minutes and a

standard deviation of 5 minutes. Using the empirical rule, what percentage of his commutes will be between 17 and 47 minutes?
Mathematics
1 answer:
k0ka [10]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

z=\frac{x-\mu}{\sigma}

And we can find the nnumber of deviations from the mean for each limit given:

z_1 = \frac{17-32}{5} = -3

z_2= \frac{47-32}{5} = 3

So we are 3 deviation from the mean and using the empirical rule we know that within 3 deviations from the mean we have 99.7% of the values

Step-by-step explanation:

Let X the random variable that represent the amount of time it takes him to arrive, and for this case we know the distribution for X is given by:

X \sim N(32,5)  

Where \mu=32 and \sigma=5

We want to find this probability:

P(17

And we can use the z score formula given by:

z=\frac{x-\mu}{\sigma}

And we can find the nnumber of deviations from the mean for each limit given:

z_1 = \frac{17-32}{5} = -3

z_2= \frac{47-32}{5} = 3

So we are 3 deviation from the mean and using the empirical rule we know that within 3 deviations from the mean we have 99.7% of the values

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99 POINT QUESTION, PLUS BRAINLIEST!!!
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First, we have to convert our function (of x) into a function of y (we revolve the curve around the y-axis). So:


y=100-x^2\\\\x^2=100-y\qquad\bold{(1)}\\\\\boxed{x=\sqrt{100-y}}\qquad\bold{(2)} \\\\\\0\leq x\leq10\\\\y=100-0^2=100\qquad\wedge\qquad y=100-10^2=100-100=0\\\\\boxed{0\leq y\leq100}

And the derivative of x:

x'=\left(\sqrt{100-y}\right)'=\Big((100-y)^\frac{1}{2}\Big)'=\dfrac{1}{2}(100-y)^{-\frac{1}{2}}\cdot(100-y)'=\\\\\\=\dfrac{1}{2\sqrt{100-y}}\cdot(-1)=\boxed{-\dfrac{1}{2\sqrt{100-y}}}\qquad\bold{(3)}

Now, we can calculate the area of the surface:

A=2\pi\int\limits_0^{100}\sqrt{100-y}\sqrt{1+\left(-\dfrac{1}{2\sqrt{100-y}}\right)^2}\,\,dy=\\\\\\= 2\pi\int\limits_0^{100}\sqrt{100-y}\sqrt{1+\dfrac{1}{4(100-y)}}\,\,dy=(\star)

We could calculate this integral (not very hard, but long), or use (1), (2) and (3) to get:

(\star)=2\pi\int\limits_0^{100}1\cdot\sqrt{100-y}\sqrt{1+\dfrac{1}{4(100-y)}}\,\,dy=\left|\begin{array}{c}1=\dfrac{-2\sqrt{100-y}}{-2\sqrt{100-y}}\end{array}\right|= \\\\\\= 2\pi\int\limits_0^{100}\dfrac{-2\sqrt{100-y}}{-2\sqrt{100-y}}\cdot\sqrt{100-y}\cdot\sqrt{1+\dfrac{1}{4(100-y)}}\,\,dy=\\\\\\ 2\pi\int\limits_0^{100}-2\sqrt{100-y}\cdot\sqrt{100-y}\cdot\sqrt{1+\dfrac{1}{4(100-y)}}\cdot\dfrac{dy}{-2\sqrt{100-y}}=\\\\\\

=2\pi\int\limits_0^{100}-2\big(100-y\big)\cdot\sqrt{1+\dfrac{1}{4(100-y)}}\cdot\left(-\dfrac{1}{2\sqrt{100-y}}\, dy\right)\stackrel{\bold{(1)}\bold{(2)}\bold{(3)}}{=}\\\\\\= \left|\begin{array}{c}x=\sqrt{100-y}\\\\x^2=100-y\\\\dx=-\dfrac{1}{2\sqrt{100-y}}\, \,dy\\\\a=0\implies a'=\sqrt{100-0}=10\\\\b=100\implies b'=\sqrt{100-100}=0\end{array}\right|=\\\\\\= 2\pi\int\limits_{10}^0-2x^2\cdot\sqrt{1+\dfrac{1}{4x^2}}\,\,dx=(\text{swap limits})=\\\\\\

=2\pi\int\limits_0^{10}2x^2\cdot\sqrt{1+\dfrac{1}{4x^2}}\,\,dx= 4\pi\int\limits_0^{10}\sqrt{x^4}\cdot\sqrt{1+\dfrac{1}{4x^2}}\,\,dx=\\\\\\= 4\pi\int\limits_0^{10}\sqrt{x^4+\dfrac{x^4}{4x^2}}\,\,dx= 4\pi\int\limits_0^{10}\sqrt{x^4+\dfrac{x^2}{4}}\,\,dx=\\\\\\= 4\pi\int\limits_0^{10}\sqrt{\dfrac{x^2}{4}\left(4x^2+1\right)}\,\,dx= 4\pi\int\limits_0^{10}\dfrac{x}{2}\sqrt{4x^2+1}\,\,dx=\\\\\\=\boxed{2\pi\int\limits_0^{10}x\sqrt{4x^2+1}\,dx}

Calculate indefinite integral:

\int x\sqrt{4x^2+1}\,dx=\int\sqrt{4x^2+1}\cdot x\,dx=\left|\begin{array}{c}t=4x^2+1\\\\dt=8x\,dx\\\\\dfrac{dt}{8}=x\,dx\end{array}\right|=\int\sqrt{t}\cdot\dfrac{dt}{8}=\\\\\\=\dfrac{1}{8}\int t^\frac{1}{2}\,dt=\dfrac{1}{8}\cdot\dfrac{t^{\frac{1}{2}+1}}{\frac{1}{2}+1}=\dfrac{1}{8}\cdot\dfrac{t^\frac{3}{2}}{\frac{3}{2}}=\dfrac{2}{8\cdot3}\cdot t^\frac{3}{2}=\boxed{\dfrac{1}{12}\left(4x^2+1\right)^\frac{3}{2}}

And the area:

A=2\pi\int\limits_0^{10}x\sqrt{4x^2+1}\,dx=2\pi\cdot\dfrac{1}{12}\bigg[\left(4x^2+1\right)^\frac{3}{2}\bigg]_0^{10}=\\\\\\= \dfrac{\pi}{6}\left[\big(4\cdot10^2+1\big)^\frac{3}{2}-\big(4\cdot0^2+1\big)^\frac{3}{2}\right]=\dfrac{\pi}{6}\Big(\big401^\frac{3}{2}-1^\frac{3}{2}\Big)=\boxed{\dfrac{401^\frac{3}{2}-1}{6}\pi}

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