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photoshop1234 [79]
3 years ago
5

"When comparing the means of two independent samples, the population standard deviations will almost always be"

Mathematics
1 answer:
Lilit [14]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:  Check this answer!

Step-by-step explanation:

                                                   The comparison of two independent population means is very common and provides a way to test the hypothesis that the two groups differ from each other. Is the night shift less productive than the day shift, are the rates of return from fixed asset investments different from those from common stock investments, and so on? An observed difference between two sample means depends on both the means and the sample standard deviations. Very different means can occur by chance if there is great variation among the individual samples. The test statistic will have to account for this fact. The test comparing two independent population means with unknown and possibly unequal population standard deviations is called the Aspin-Welch t-test.

In simple terms, The population standard deviation is a parameter, which is a fixed value calculated from every individual in the population. A sample standard deviation is a statistic. This means that it is calculated from only some of the individuals in a population. Since the sample standard deviation depends upon the sample, it has greater variability. Thus the standard deviation of the sample is greater than that of the population

Because: reason:

                                   Since the sample standard deviation depends upon the sample, it has greater variability. Thus the standard deviation of the sample is greater than that of the population.

HOPE IT HELPS YOU, IF IT HELPS PLEASE MARK THE BRAINLIEST BECOZ IT TOOK ME QUITE WHILE TO WRITE TO YOU...

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pishuonlain [190]

Answer:

1/12

Step-by-step explanation:

subtract the four soloists who can't be chosen from the total musicians

16-4=12

Itzhak is one person out of 12 who could be chosen to speak

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5 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
HELP ME PLEASE!
shusha [124]

Answer:

Part A) The probability is closer to 0, because is less than 50%

Part B) The probability is closer to 1, because is greater than 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

we know that

The probability of an event is the ratio of the size of the event space to the size of the sample space.  

The size of the sample space is the total number of possible outcomes  

The event space is the number of outcomes in the event you are interested in.  

so  

Let

x------> size of the event space

y-----> size of the sample space  

so

P=\frac{x}{y}

Part A) Is the probability of hitting the black circle inside the target closer to 0 or 1?

In this problem we have

x------> is the area of the black circle

y------> is the total area of the square target

<em>Find the area of black circle</em>

r=3/2=1.5\ units    

x=(3.14)(1.5)^{2} =7.065\ units^{2}

<em>Find the total area of the square target</em>

y=9^{2}=81\ units^{2}

Find the probability

P=\frac{7.065}{81}=0.0872

Convert to percentage

0.0872*100=8.72\%

The probability is closer to 0, because is less than 50%

Part B) Is the probability of hitting the white portion of the target closer to 0 or 1?

In this problem we have

x------> is the area of the white portion of the target

y------> is the total area of the square target

<em>Find the area of the white portion</em>

The area is equal to the area of the square minus the area of the circle

x=81-7.065=73.935\ units^{2}

Find the probability

P=\frac{73.935}{81}=0.9128

Convert to percentage

0.9128*100=91.28\%

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3 years ago
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Answer:

radius = 10 units

Step-by-step explanation:

using the Pythagorean theorem:

height of triangle = 6 units

base of triangle = 16/2 = 8 units

radius² = 6² + 8² = 36 + 64 = 100

radius = √100 = 10 units

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