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photoshop1234 [79]
3 years ago
5

"When comparing the means of two independent samples, the population standard deviations will almost always be"

Mathematics
1 answer:
Lilit [14]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:  Check this answer!

Step-by-step explanation:

                                                   The comparison of two independent population means is very common and provides a way to test the hypothesis that the two groups differ from each other. Is the night shift less productive than the day shift, are the rates of return from fixed asset investments different from those from common stock investments, and so on? An observed difference between two sample means depends on both the means and the sample standard deviations. Very different means can occur by chance if there is great variation among the individual samples. The test statistic will have to account for this fact. The test comparing two independent population means with unknown and possibly unequal population standard deviations is called the Aspin-Welch t-test.

In simple terms, The population standard deviation is a parameter, which is a fixed value calculated from every individual in the population. A sample standard deviation is a statistic. This means that it is calculated from only some of the individuals in a population. Since the sample standard deviation depends upon the sample, it has greater variability. Thus the standard deviation of the sample is greater than that of the population

Because: reason:

                                   Since the sample standard deviation depends upon the sample, it has greater variability. Thus the standard deviation of the sample is greater than that of the population.

HOPE IT HELPS YOU, IF IT HELPS PLEASE MARK THE BRAINLIEST BECOZ IT TOOK ME QUITE WHILE TO WRITE TO YOU...

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Three cards are chosen from a standard deck of 52 playing cards with replacement what is the orobsbility every card will be a he
Ne4ueva [31]
1/4 x 1/4 x 1/4 = 1/64

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4 years ago
How do you change 0.16666 in a fraction
Natasha_Volkova [10]
Here's how to convert 0.16666 to a fraction...

There is not much that can be done to figure out how to write 0.16666 as a fraction, except to literally use what the decimal portion of your number, the .16666, means.

Since there are 5 digits in 16666, the very last digit is the "100000th" decimal place.

So we can just say that .16666 is the same as 16666/100000.

The fraction 16666/100000 is not reduced to lowest terms. We can reduce this fraction to lowest
terms by dividing both the numerator and denominator by 2.

Why divide by 2? 2 is the Greatest Common Divisor (GCD)
or Greatest Common Factor (GCF) of the numbers 16666 and 100000.
So, this fraction reduced to lowest terms is 8333/50000

So your final answer is: 0.16666 can be written as the fraction 8333/50000

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the domain of f
frez [133]

Answer:

[ - 6 , 6 ]

Step-by-step explanation:

This is because the value of f(t) for x values only ranges from -6 to 6.

Please mark for Brainliest!! :D Thanks!!

For more questions or more information, please comment below!

8 0
3 years ago
ANSWER PLZ QUICK AND FAST
kherson [118]

Half of n, is option D, n/2.

This is because if you divide something by 2, you are dividing it in half.

Hope this helps!

3 0
3 years ago
For a trip Eli packed 4 shirts, 2 pairs of pants, and 2 pairs of shoes. How many different outfits can Eli make?
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