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tatuchka [14]
3 years ago
5

36 is ______ % less than 60

Mathematics
2 answers:
poizon [28]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

40% is the right answer it is not 44%

REMINDER NOT 44% IT IS 40%

Step-by-step explanation:

expeople1 [14]3 years ago
3 0
44% Is the answer, Think Of 50-50
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Help me plz with this question!
sashaice [31]
I hope this help in some sort of way you can message me if you need more help

5 0
2 years ago
-4(y-2)=12<br> what is the answer
AysviL [449]

Answer:

y=−1

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's solve your equation step-by-step.

−4(y−2)=12

Step 1: Simplify both sides of the equation.

−4(y−2)=12

(−4)(y)+(−4)(−2)=12(Distribute)

−4y+8=12

Step 2: Subtract 8 from both sides.

−4y+8−8=12−8

−4y=4

Step 3: Divide both sides by -4.

−4y

−4

=

4

−4

y=−1

3 0
2 years ago
How can csc^2-cot^2 = 1?
Softa [21]

ANSWER

By simplifying the left hand side using the Pythagorean Identity.

EXPLANATION

The given identity is

\csc^{2} (x) -  \cot^{2} (x) = 1

Take the left hand side and simplify to get the right hand side.

\csc^{2} (x) -  \cot^{2} (x) =  \frac{1}{\sin^{2} (x)}  - \frac{ \cos^{2} (x)}{\sin^{2} (x)}

Collect LCM for the denominators.

\csc^{2} (x) -  \cot^{2} (x) =  \frac{1 -  \cos^{2} (x)}{\sin^{2} (x)}

Recall the Pythagorean Identity.

\cos^{2} (x) +  \sin^{2} (x) = 1

This implies that:

1 -  \cos^{2} (x) =  \sin^{2} (x)

We substitute this to get,

\csc^{2} (x) -  \cot^{2} (x) =  \frac{\sin^{2} (x)}{\sin^{2} (x)}

\csc^{2} (x) -  \cot^{2} (x) = 1

6 0
2 years ago
In a test of a​ gender-selection technique, results consisted of 248 baby girls and 13 baby boys. based on this​ result, what is
Rashid [163]
When it comes to probability, the answer is always expressed as part of a whole. With that being said, your answer for this problem can be a ratio, fraction or in percentage. Probability is the study of finding the chances or odds of an event happening with the use of statistics. You are already given the statistics of baby girls and baby boys. Note that you are asked to find the probability of the baby being a girl. So, the part here includes the 248, while the whole is 248+13 = 261. Therefore, the probability is 248/261 or 0.95 or 95%. That means that the likelihood of having a girl baby using this technique is very high.
6 0
3 years ago
A water tank holds 200 gallons but is leaking at a rate of 3 gallons per week. A second water tank holds
vlada-n [284]
200-3w = 300-5w

Where w is the number of weeks

Rearrange and reduce:
-3w + 5w = 300-200
2 w = 100
w = 100/2 = 50 weeks
5 0
3 years ago
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