1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
sergey [27]
3 years ago
12

_____ is Gross Domestic Product divided by a country's population.

Business
2 answers:
AlladinOne [14]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

GDP per capita

Explanation:

GDP is the sum of all goods and services produced by an economy over a given period of time. It is the main indicator of a capitalist economy, since it is the GDP that earns the wealth of the nation. Per capita GDP is an indicator that aims to measure the average wealth of a country's population. To calculate GDP per capita, the value of GDP is divided by the total population of the country.

kicyunya [14]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: The answer is GDP per capita.

GDP per capita is Gross Domestic Product divided by a country's population.

Explanation: Gross Domestic Product  (GDP) per capita refers to dividing the country’s Gross Domestic Product by its population. It measures the country’s economic output that account for the country’s total population. Gross Domestic Product  (GDP) per capita is the best measurement of a country’s standard of living.

Gross Domestic Product means the total number of goods and services produced in the country within a year.

You might be interested in
The following events apply to Gulf Seafood for the 2018 fiscal year: The company started when it acquired $60,000 cash by issuin
Arte-miy333 [17]

Answer:

depreciation per year:  9,000

<u>operating income: </u>     41,000

Explanation:

Q: Adjusted the records to reflect the use of the cooktop.

Under straight-line the company will recognize the same amount of depreciation over the course of the assets life. At year-end the company will adjsut for the loss in value for the asset generated for the past of time.

\frac{cost - salvage \: \:value}{useful \:\: life}

\frac{40,000- 4,000}{4}

depreciation per year: 9,000

<u>operating income:</u>

revenues                      72,000

salaries expense:        (25,000)

depreciation per year:  (9,000)

          total                    41,000

6 0
3 years ago
The North’s growing ______________________ supplied the troops with ______________________, ______________________, and other ne
kkurt [141]

pwriod ................nmintr2rr

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Assume the following: The variable portion of the predetermined overhead rate is $3.00 per direct labor-hour. The standard labor
Artemon [7]

Answer:

Variable overhead efficiency variance= $3,000 favorable

Explanation:

<u>To calculate the variable overhead efficiency variance, we need to use the following formula:</u>

Variable overhead efficiency variance= (Standard Quantity - Actual Quantity)*Standard rate

Standard quantity= 3*15,000= 45,000 hours

Actual quantity= 44,000 hours

Standard rate= $3 per hour

Variable overhead efficiency variance= (45,000 - 44,000)*3

Variable overhead efficiency variance= $3,000 favorable

4 0
3 years ago
If price increases from $45 to $55, the market quantity supplied increases from 20 units per week to 30 units per week. The pric
hichkok12 [17]

Answer:

The answer is 2.25

Explanation:

Price Elasticity of Supply (PES)= percentage change in Quantity demanded/ percentage change in price

PES= (30-20)/20 *100) /( 55-45)/45*100) = 50%/22.22% = 2.25

4 0
3 years ago
Suppose a family has saved enough for a 10 day vacation (the only one they will be able to take for 10 years) and has a utility
Harlamova29_29 [7]

Answer:

2 Days

Explanation:

First, there is the need to rewrite the utility function for clarity

U=V^{1/2}

1. The Probability of Falling ill by someone in the family is given as 20%

2. If someone should fall ill, the total number of days that would be spoiled is calculated as:

Total number of vacation= 10 days x Probability to fall ill = 20%

= 10 x 0.2 = 2 days

This means if someone should fall ill based on the probability, then 2 out of the total 10 days can be ruined

3. The number of days for vacation days to enjoy is 10-2 = 8 days

This means if the family gives up 2 days of probable illness, they can still enjoy their vacation.

V= 2 days

5 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • The property appraisal district for Marin County has just installed new software to track residential market values for property
    11·1 answer
  • Veronica buys a laptop from a local salesperson, but it turns out to be defective. She tells her friends and relatives about the
    12·1 answer
  • The most obvious benefit of specialization and trade is that they allow us to
    9·1 answer
  • Management Services, Inc. provides services to clients. On May 1, a client prepaid Management Services $60,000 for 6-months serv
    5·1 answer
  • If Penny bought a stock for $80 dollars and could sell it 15 years later for 4 times what she originally paid, what is Penny’s r
    12·1 answer
  • On december 31, slugger batting cages company decides to trade in one of its batting cages for another one that has a cost of $5
    13·2 answers
  • McLaughlin borrowed her roommate's car just to take her mother to the hospital. While delivering her mother at the hospital, McL
    7·1 answer
  • the lease on a new office requires an immediate payment of $24,000 (in year 0) plus $24,000 per year at the end of each of the n
    7·1 answer
  • Health food corporation's bonds have 7 years remaining to maturity. the bonds have a face value of $1,000 and a yield to maturit
    6·1 answer
  • The selling price of imported olive oil is $20 per case. Your cost is 15 Euros per case, and the exchange rate is currently 1.25
    14·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!