I think that is FALSE but i am not sure
It's in state department Telegrams to all Diplomats and Consulates that said
"this Govt may within this next few hours recognize Provisional Jewish Govt as de facto authority of the Jewish state"
I can't really answer your question (as I don't really know enough about 18th century France), but I just want to clear up an (understandable) misconception about Feudalism in your question.
The French revolution was adamant and explicit in its abolition of 'feudalism'. However, the 'feudalism' it was talking about had nothing at all to do with medieval 'feudalism' (which, of course, never existed). What the revolutionaries had in mind, in my own understanding of it, was the legally privileged position of the aristocracy/2nd estate. This type of 'feudalism' was a creation of early modern lawyers and, as a result, is better seen as a product of the early-modern monarchical nation-state, than as a precursor to it. It has nothing to do with the pre-nation-state medieval period, or with the Crusades.
Eighteenth-century buffs, feel free to chip in if I've misrepresented anything, as this is mostly coming from my readings about the historiographical development of feudalism, not any revolutionary France expertise, so I may well have misinterpreted things.
Answer:
availability of investment capital
Explanation:
The condition that is most necessary to the process of industrialization in a society is availability of investment capital.
This is because capital is one of the factors of production that is very important in any business or production venture. If there is availability of investment capital, then industrialization would be increasingly possible.