Option D
This would imply that he is working for: Total rewards
<h3><u>
Explanation:</u></h3>
Total Reward is an idea that explains all the means possible to an employer that may be practiced to pull, stimulate and engage employees. To a worker or candidate exploring new employment, the concept of total rewards combines recognized value as a consequence of the employment relationship.
The approach consolidates compensation and advantages with personal growth possibilities inside a motivated business environment. An employee’s Total Rewards privileges case typically holds components of wages or compensation, profits, work-life versatility, achievement, appreciation, and extension and development.
Overdraft is a facility provided by bank to make expenses more than that of the balance present in the account of customers. This facility is provided to certain specified customers with high credibility.
Given
Balance is $202.86
Note: Payments will be recognized in descending order because it is the policy of bank to record the highest transaction first.
Payments made are :
$113.92
$80.73
$35.24
$16.89
<h3>Calculations</h3>
Therefore Shakira will be allowed to overdraw from the account as the amount of overdraft is less than $50.
Elaborating further, When we deduct the payments from the balance in descending order we reach on a conclusion that there will be 2 overdrafts made because after deducting $113.92 and $80.73 from the balance amount of $202.86 there will be 2 payments pending amounting $35.24 and $16.89 from the left balance of $ 8.21.
Therefore the correct option will be OPTION B i.e. 2 overdrafts.
Learn more about overdrafts here:
brainly.com/question/14182019
Answer:
b. go down.
Explanation:
The Formula for Required rate of return Ke = Dividend (D1) / Price. So, increase in price which is denominator will leads to decrease in the required rate of return. Hence, In computing the cost of common equity, if the dividend (D1) goes downward and market price (P0) goes up, required rate of return (Ke) will <u>Go down</u>
Answer:
Coupon rate is 5.17%
Explanation:
Yield to maturity is the annual rate of return that an investor receives if a bond bond is held until the maturity.
Assuming Face value of the bond is $1,000
Face value = F = $1,000
Selling price = P = $948
Number of payment = n = 9 years
Bond Yield = 5.9%
The coupon rate can be calculated using following formula
Yield to maturity = [ C + ( F - P ) / n ] / [ (F + P ) / 2 ]
5.9% = [ C + ( $1,000 - $948 ) / 9 ] / [ ( $1,000 + $948 ) / 2 ]
5.9% = [ C + $5.78 ] / $974
5.9% x $974 = C + $5.78
$57.466 = C + $5.78
C = $57.466 - $5.78 = $51.686
Coupon rate = $51.686 / $1,000 = 0.051686 = 5.17%
Answer:
d. globalization
Explanation:
-Industrialization is the process of transforming an economy to focus on the manufacturing activity.
-Neoliberalization is a process that has the goal of transfering control of the economic factors to the private sector and it involves: free market trade and fewer regulations in the financial markets.
-Migration refers to the movement of people from one place to another one to work and live.
-Globalization is the process in which technology, information, people, jobs are shared through borders and it has generated more integration between people and cultures around the world.
According to this, the process that has intensified the exchange and diffusion of people, ideas, and goods worldwide, creating more interaction and engagement among cultures is globalization.
