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rosijanka [135]
3 years ago
14

Savor Co. had $100,000 in accrual basis pretax income for the year. At year-end, accounts receivable had increased by $10,000 an

d accounts payable had decreased by $6,000 from their prior year-end balances. Under the cash basis of accounting, what amount of pretax income should Savor report for the year?
a. $104,000b. $84,000c. $116,000d. $96,000
Business
1 answer:
Sladkaya [172]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

B) $84,000

Explanation:

Since accounts receivable increased by $10,000, it means that the cash basis pretax income is $10,000 lower than the accrual basis pretax income. The company sold the goods or services but it hasn't received the cash them yet.  

Since accounts payable decreased by $6,000, it means that the cash basis pretax income is $6,000 lower than the accrual basis pretax income. The company acquired debt in year 1 but it paid it during year 2, therefore it used cash during year 2 to pay for debt that corresponded to year 1.

If we add both negative adjustments; (-$10,000) + (-$6,000) = -$16,000

$100,000 - $16,000 = $84,000

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For an analysis of the salaries of your​ company, you plot the salaries of all employees against the number of years they have w
Arisa [49]

Answer:

1. That values that you must plot are:

  • (1, 4.08))
  • (20, 5.08)
  • (40, 6.18)

2. Yes, the plot of those three points is straight enough.

Explanation:

<em><u>A. What are the values you will​ plot? </u></em>

The x-ccordinate of your plot is still the number of years the exmployees have worked for the company.

The y-coordinate of your plot is the the​ base-10 logarithm of  the salary.

Therefore:

<u>1) A​ part-time shipping​ clerk</u>: 1 year, $12,000

           ⇒     (1,log_{10}12,000)=(1,4.08)

<u>2) A manager</u>: 20 years, $120,000

  ⇒     (20,log_{10}120,000)=(20,5.08)

<u>3) The​ CEO</u>: 40 years​ ago, $1,500,000

  ⇒     (40,log_{10}1,500,000)=(40,6.18)

Summarizing, the points to plot are:

  • (1, 4.08)
  • (20, 5.08)
  • (40, 6.18)

<u><em>B. Will the plot of these three points be straight​ enough?</em></u>

To find whether the plot is straight enoguh, you may either plot them, make a regression, or, since they are only three points, you can whether the change of rate of the points is constant.

  • <u>Change of rate of the first two points, r</u>:

       r = rise/run = Δy / Δx = (5.08 - 4.08) / (20 - 1) =1.00/19 ≈ 0.05

  • <u>Change of rate of the second and the third points, r</u>:

       r = rise/run = Δy / Δx = (6.18 - 5.08) / (20 - 1) = 0.05

Since both rate of changes are equal (or reasonably equal) the plot is  straight enough.

4 0
3 years ago
Cusic Industries had the following operating results for 2019: sales = $34,621; cost of goods sold = $24,359; depreciation expen
Stolb23 [73]

Answer:

a. $1,132.50

b. $9,884.50

c. $10,586

d.1 $2,725

d.2 - $4,363.50

Explanation:

a. The computation of the net income is shown below:

= Sales - cost of good sold - depreciation expense - interest expense - income tax expense

= $34,621 - $24,359 - $6,027 - $2,275 - 377.50

= $1,132.50

The income tax expense

= ($34,621 - $24,359 - $6,027 - $2,275) × 25%

= $377.50

b. The operating cash flow is shown below:

= EBIT + Depreciation - Income tax expense

where,

EBIT =  Sales - cost of good sold - depreciation expense

       =  $34,621 - $24,359 - $6,027

       =  $4,235

And all other items would remain same

Now put these values to the above formula

So, the value would equal to

= $4,235 + $6,027- $377.50

= $9,884.50

c. Computation of the cash flow from assets for 2019 is shown below:

= Operating cash flow - net capital spending - changes in working capital

where, net capital capital = ending fixed assets - beginning fixed assets + depreciation

= $24,529 -  $19,970 + $6,027

= $10,586

Changes in working capital = (ending balance of current assets - ending balance of  current liabilities) - (beginning balance of current assets - beginning balance of  current liabilities)

= ($8,702 - $4,700) - ($7,075 - $4,010)

= $4,002 - $3,065

= $937

Now put these values to the above formula  

So, the value would equal to

= $9,884.50 - $10,586 - $937

= - $1,638.50

d.1 The computation of the cash flow to creditors is shown below:

= Interest expense - ending balance of long term debt + beginning balance of long term debt

= $2,725 - 0 + 0

= $2,725

d.2 The computation of the cash flow to stockholder is shown below:

= Cash flow from asset - cash flow to creditors

=  - $1,638.50 -  $2,725

= - $4,363.50

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