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pogonyaev
4 years ago
7

A 5-year-old boy is noted to have a grade II systolic murmur and a widely split S2 murmur on cardiac exam. His vital signs are s

table and he has been asymptomatic. Which of the following statement is accurate regarding this child's presentation and likely condition?
A. No further work-up for a presumed venous humB. Chest x-ray, ECG, and echocardiogram would be indicated as next steps to work up a presumed ventricular septal defectC. This patient's murmur is caused by flow through the pulmonary outflow tract and should be evaluatedD. The patient should be scheduled now for cardiac catheterization
Biology
1 answer:
gayaneshka [121]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

C.

Explanation:

The murmur of this patient is possibly caused by an atrial septal defect that induces excessive blood flow through the pulmonary outflow tract, and should be examined.

B is right assess measures but this is not a ventricular septal defect (Vsd) that normally has a holosystolic murmur and a second heart sound that splits with respiration component.

Hence, the correct option is C.

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