Answer:
18
Step-by-step explanation:
The expected value is the probability times the frequency.
3 = 1/6 × n
n = 18
Note: the use of the word "odds" is very misleading here. Odds are the ratio of number of successes to number of failures:
S / F
Probability is the ratio of number of successes to number of all outcomes:
S / (S + F)
So the probability of rolling a 5 is 1/6. The odds of rolling a 5 is 1/5.
Furthermore, the word "must" is also incorrect. The player didn't <em>have</em> to roll 18 times. They could have rolled three times and gotten a 5 each time. Or they could have rolled 100 times. 18 is simply the most <em>likely </em>number of rolls needed to get three 5's.
First one is $16 and the second is $276.25
Answer:
$378,000
Step-by-step explanation:
The computation of the bad debt expense for the year is shown below:
Bad debt expense = Outstanding account receivable × estimated percentage given - credit balance of allowance for doubtful account
= $6,500,000 × 0.06 - $12,000
= $390,000 - $12,000
= $378,000
We simply deduct the credit balance from the estimated balance so that the correct amount could arrive
The answer to this question is:
36π cm³
your welcome.
Please brainliest
Answer:
sec A = 5/4
Step-by-step explanation:
Sec of an angle is hypotenuse/adjacent side
In your problem, sec A = 25/20 = 5/4
It helps if you can draw a figure of the problem. Make sure you memorize the definition of each trig function