Which expressions are equivalent to 5^18?

The average number of annual trips per family to amusement parks in the UnitedStates is Poisson distributed, with a mean of 0.6

IrinaK [193]

Answer:

a) 0.5488 = 54.88% probability that the family did not make a trip to an amusement park last year.

b) 0.3293 = 32.93% probability that the family took exactly one trip to an amusement park last year.

c) 0.1219 = 12.19% probability that the family took two or more trips to amusement parks last year.

d) 0.8913 = 89.13% probability that the family took three or fewer trips to amusement parks over a three-year period.

e) 0.1912 = 19.12% probability that the family took exactly four trips to amusement parks during a six-year period.

Step-by-step explanation:

In a Poisson distribution, the probability that X represents the number of successes of a random variable is given by the following formula:

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}$

In which

x is the number of sucesses

e = 2.71828 is the Euler number

$\mu$ is the mean in the given interval.

Poisson distributed, with a mean of 0.6 trips per year

This means that $\mu = 0.6n$ , in which n is the number of years.

a.The family did not make a trip to an amusement park last year.

This is P(X = 0) when n = 1, so $\mu = 0.6$ .

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}$

$P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-0.6}*(0.6)^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.5488$

0.5488 = 54.88% probability that the family did not make a trip to an amusement park last year.

b.The family took exactly one trip to an amusement park last year.

This is P(X = 1) when n = 1, so $\mu = 0.6$ .

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}$

$P(X = 1) = \frac{e^{-0.6}*(0.6)^{1}}{(1)!} = 0.3293$

0.3293 = 32.93% probability that the family took exactly one trip to an amusement park last year.

c.The family took two or more trips to amusement parks last year.

Either the family took less than two trips, or it took two or more trips. So

$P(X < 2) + P(X \geq 2) = 1$

We want

$P(X \geq 2) = 1 - P(X < 2)$

In which

$P(X < 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.5488 + 0.3293 = 0.8781$

$P(X \geq 2) = 1 - P(X < 2) = 1 - 0.8781 = 0.1219$

0.1219 = 12.19% probability that the family took two or more trips to amusement parks last year.

d.The family took three or fewer trips to amusement parks over a three-year period.

Three years, so $\mu = 0.6(3) = 1.8$ .

This is

$P(X \leq 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3)$

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}$

$P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-1.8}*(1.8)^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.1653$

$P(X = 1) = \frac{e^{-1.8}*(1.8)^{1}}{(1)!} = 0.2975$

$P(X = 2) = \frac{e^{-1.8}*(1.8)^{2}}{(2)!} = 0.2678$

$P(X = 3) = \frac{e^{-1.8}*(1.8)^{3}}{(3)!} = 0.1607$

$P(X \leq 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) = 0.1653 + 0.2975 + 0.2678 + 0.1607 = 0.8913$

0.8913 = 89.13% probability that the family took three or fewer trips to amusement parks over a three-year period.

e.The family took exactly four trips to amusement parks during a six-year period.

Six years, so $\mu = 0.6(6) = 3.6$ .

This is P(X = 4). So

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}$

$P(X = 4) = \frac{e^{-3.6}*(3.6)^{4}}{(4)!} = 0.1912$

0.1912 = 19.12% probability that the family took exactly four trips to amusement parks during a six-year period.

4 0

3 years ago

PLS BELP I DONT HAVE MUCH TIME!!!

viktelen [127]

Answer:

I'd say A or D but I have a feeling it's A

5 0

3 years ago

Solve (x - 5)^2 = 3.

Art [367]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanatil

letter c

4 0

3 years ago

Graph ∆KLM with vertices K(2,2), L(0,- 1), and M(-3,2). Graph ∆K'L'M' with a scale factor of 2. What are the coordinates of the

olasank [31]

Answer:

The coordinates of the new vertices are:

K'(4,4), L'(0,- 2), and M'(-6,4).

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to dilate a shape by 2, you can simply multiply the coordinates of the orignal triangle each by 2 to find the new coordinates of the new vertices.

K(2,2), L(0,- 1), and M(-3,2)

K'(2*2,2*2), L'(0*2,- 1*2), and M'(-3*2,2*2).

Now become...

K'(4,4), L'(0,- 2), and M'(-6,4).

You can now graph ∆K'L'M' using these coordinates.

5 0

2 years ago

Assured normally costs £42 if you receive a 15% discount how much change will you get from £50

vesna_86 [32]

5% of £42 = £2.10
10% of £42 = £4.20
15% of £42 = £6.30

£42 - £6.30 = £35.70

£50 - £35.70 = £14.30

the answer is £14.30

6 0

3 years ago

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