Answer:
The answer will be 85,968
Answer:
hope it helps you see the attachment for further information
The equation would be 40+15p=70+5p. You would subtract 5p from each side (15-5) and (5-5) and you'll have 40+10p=70. You would then subtract 40 from each side (70-40) and (40-40) to have 10p=30. You would divide by both of the sides by 10, you would end up with p=3. P is price training. The reason you divide and subtract on both sides is because you want the months to be on one side and the price training on the other side.
Answer:
46 terms
Step-by-step explanation:
a₁=b, a₂₁= bₙ, d₁=9, d₂=4
n=?
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a₂₁= a₁+20d₁= a₁+20*9= a₁+180
bₙ= b₁+(n-1)d₂= a₁+4(n-1)
a₁+4(n-1)=a₁+180
4(n-1)=180
n-1= 180/4
n-1= 45
n=46
