Answer:
-sinx
Step-by-step explanation:
a trig identity that is crucial to solving this problem is: sin^2 + cos^2 = 1
with knowing that, you can manipulate that and turn it into 1 - sin^2x = cos^x
so 1-sin^2x/sinx - cscx becomes cos^2x/sinx - cscx
it is also important to know that cscx is the same thing as 1/sinx
knowing this information, cscx can be replaced with 1/sinx
(cos^2x)/(sinx - 1/sinx)
now sinx and 1/sinx do not have the same denominator, so we need to multiply top and bottom of sinx by sinx; it becomes....
cos^2x
---------------------
(sin^2x - 1)/sinx
notice how in the denominator it has sin^2x-1 which is equal to -cos^2x
so now it becomes:
cos^2x
--------------
-cos^2x/sinx
because we have a fraction over a fraction, we need to flip it
cos^2x sinx
---------- * ----------------
1 - cos^2x
because the cos^2x can cancel out, it becomes 1
now the answer is -sinx
Answer:
Option.B
Step-by-step explanation:
Its because if you add these two angles you get a supplementary angle or 180°
Using this we can form an equation to find the value of x.
(Hope this answer helps :))
(And is this question from Khan Academy?)
Answer:
48 Miles
Step-by-step explanation:
I assume you are asking for the distance in miles between the two cities.
1 Inch = 8 Miles,
Then 6 Inches = 8 Miles * 6
If the cities are 6 inches apart, the actual distance is 48 miles.
Answer: I tried looking it up but I couldn't find anything, but I woud try typing in "4.1 Practice B (Whatever math that is) big ideas math blue answer key" and see if that works. Hope that helps:)
TWENTY ONE BA DUM DUM DUM
