Answer:
3 years
Explanation:
The payback period measures how long it takes for the amount invested in a project to be recovered from the projects cash flows .
Number of years = Investment / cash flows
$6000 / $2000 = 3 years
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Answer:
Products Selling price Unit variable cost
$ $
Junior 50 15
Adult 75 25
Expert <u>110 </u> <u> 60</u>
Total <u> 235 </u> <u> 100</u>
The sales price per composite unit = $235
The contribution margin per composite unit
= Composite selling price - Composite unit variable cost
= $235 - $100
= $135
Break-even point in units
= <u>Fixed cost</u>
Contribution per unit
= <u>$114,750</u>
$135
= 850 units
Break-even point in dollars
= Break-even point in units x Composite selling price
= 850 units x $235
= $199,750
Income Statement
$
Total contribution ($135 x 850 units) 114,750
Less: Fixed cost <u>114,750</u>
Net profit <u> 0</u>
Explanation:
Sales price per composite unit is the aggregate of all the selling prices.
Contribution margin per composite unit equals composite selling price minus composite unit variable cost.
Break-even point in units is fixed cost divided per composite contribution margin per unit.
Break-even point in dollars equal break-even point in units multiplied by selling price.
Income statement is prepared by deducting the total fixed cost from the total contribution.
Answer: D. U.S. Treasury securities and Discount loans to banks.
Explanation: When examining the Fed's balance sheet, in most periods, the two most important assets are U.S. Treasury securities and Discount loans to banks. The Fed's balance sheet balance sheet includes a large number of distinct assets and liabilities containing a great deal of information about the scale and scope of its operations. Of these assets the U.S. Treasury securities and Discount loans to banks are paramount.
U.S Treasury securities are such as bills, notes and bonds issued by the U.S. government viewed as having virtually no credit risk. As such, they are debt obligations of the U.S. government.
Discount loans to banks are direct short term loans provided to banks by the Fed to meet temporary shortages of liquidity caused by internal or external disruptions.
Answer:
$489,512.15
Explanation:
The formula for calculating future value:
FV = P (1 + r)^n
FV = Future value
P = Present value
R = interest rate
N = number of years
We are supposed to determine the present value
Present value is the sum of discounted cash flows
Present value can be calculated using a financial calculator
Cash flow in year 1 = 84,000
Cash flow in year 2 = 113,000
Cash flow in year 3 = 125,000
Cash flow in year 4 = 130,000
I = 6%
PV = 387,739.47
387,739.47(1.06)^4 = $489,512.15
To find the PV using a financial calculator:
1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.
2. after inputting all the cash flows, press the NPV button, input the value for I, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.
3. Press compute
The answers below correctly describe the cash over and short account as a debit balance reflecting an expense.
The debit stability in a margin account is the entire sum of money owed by the consumer to a broker or other lender for budget borrowed to purchase securities. a sum of money in a bank account, etc. that's much less than zero due to the fact more money becomes taken out of it than the total amount that becomes paid into it: clients should remember to transfer the debit stability to a credit card with a special charge for debt transfers.
assets and prices have herbal debit balances. which means nice values for assets and expenses are debited and bad balances are credited. subsequently, the current account has debit stability that must be shown on the asset aspect of the stability Sheet.
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