We know a or b != 0
but a-b==0 so both are the same unknown number
b/a must = 1
so
a/b is equivalent to b/a as a/b=1 as well.
So the last answer choice.
Here, use the app photomath.
<h2>
Answer with explanation:</h2>
We are asked to prove by the method of mathematical induction that:

where n is a positive integer.
then we have:

Hence, the result is true for n=1.
- Let us assume that the result is true for n=k
i.e.

- Now, we have to prove the result for n=k+1
i.e.
<u>To prove:</u> 
Let us take n=k+1
Hence, we have:

( Since, the result was true for n=k )
Hence, we have:

Also, we know that:

(
Since, for n=k+1 being a positive integer we have:
)
Hence, we have finally,

Hence, the result holds true for n=k+1
Hence, we may infer that the result is true for all n belonging to positive integer.
i.e.
where n is a positive integer.
Answer:
I would guess 40, I could be wrong.
Step-by-step explanation:
70-30=40. So it would be 40 units away from eachother.