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3 years ago

Use the distributive property to create an equivalent expression to 42 + 6x

1 answer:

3 0

Hey there!
The distributive property is defined as:
a(b+c) = ab+ac.
Since a is being multiplied by b and c, it's a common factor. In this situation, our common factor is 6, as it goes into 6x and 42. So, we have:
6(7 + x)
Hope this helps!

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Y is inversely proportional to x, when Y = 2, x = 4.

irina [24]

Answer:

Constant of proportionality is y divided by x. y is 2 and x is 4. 2 divided by 4 is 1/2.

Let me know if that is correct.

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

b)suppose only 1 in every 1,000 stars in the observable universe has a planetary system. how many planetary system are there? Fi

rosijanka [135]

Answer:

Please read below :)

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

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gregori [183]

The answer to you question is B

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3 years ago

Elisa needs 40 shirts for a charity. One store is selling shirts for $6.95 each. Another store says that the total for al 40 shi

xxTIMURxx [149]

Well, let us figure out what the first store will cost.
40*6.95=278
Now for the second store
325*0.8=260

So the first store is $278, while the second store is $260, so Elisa should buy shirts from the second store

7 0

3 years ago

Philip ran out of time while taking a multiple-choice test and plans to guess the last 4 questions. Each question has 5 possible

White raven [17]

Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a 0.4096 = 40.96% probability that he answers exactly 1 question correctly in the last 4 questions.

<h3>What is the binomial distribution formula?</h3>

The formula is:

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

The parameters are:

x is the number of successes.

n is the number of trials.

p is the probability of a success on a single trial.

Considering that there are 4 questions, and each has 5 choices, the parameters are given as follows:

n = 4, p = 1/5 = 0.2.

The probability that he answers exactly 1 question correctly in the last 4 questions is P(X = 1), hence:

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 1) = C_{4,1}.(0.2)^{1}.(0.8)^{3} = 0.4096$

0.4096 = 40.96% probability that he answers exactly 1 question correctly in the last 4 questions.

More can be learned about the binomial distribution at brainly.com/question/24863377

#SPJ1

8 0

2 years ago