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evablogger [386]
3 years ago
6

When you convert fron pints to quarts why do you divide

Mathematics
1 answer:
user100 [1]3 years ago
5 0
We divide when converting pints to quarts because pints are smaller units of measurements than quarts, so when converting pints to quarts, our answer will be getting smaller. This is because 2 pints= 1 quart, so since we are trying to find the amount of quarts that the pints can make up, we will always divide the pints by 2. (since 2 pints= 1 quart)
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Norma-Jean [14]
U= uniforms


598+ 24.25u= 1762

24.25u= 1762- 598

24.25u= 1164

U= 1164/24.25

U= 48

The school purchased 48 uniforms.

Hope this helps!
3 0
3 years ago
Find an equation of the line passing through the given points. Write the equation in the function notation.
Mrrafil [7]
First you need to find the slope of the line using the given coordinates of the two points.
The slope of the line = (1-4)/(4-3) = -3
Then you choose one pair of the coordinates given, either (3,4) or (4,1) , up to you, to find the equation of the line.
If you choose (3,4)
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3 0
3 years ago
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Will give brainliest and add more points to your acc if good awnser Please help ASAP
joja [24]
Hailey's mixing two different coffee blends.  Represent them by x and y (in pounds).  Then x + y = 5 lb, and x = 5 - y.How much puree Sum. beans are we talking about here?
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20(5-y) + 80y = 300 => 100-20y + 80y = 300 => 60y = 200,  so                                                                                  y = 20/6 or 10/3 lb                                              den x = 5-10/3, or    x =5/3 lb
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3 years ago
What is the inverse of the function below?<br><br> f(x) = 2^x + 6
Helen [10]

The inverse of this function would be f(x) = \frac{Log(x - 6)}{Log2}.



You can find the value of any inverse function by switching the f(x) and the x value. Then you can solve for the new f(x) value. The end result will be your new inverse function. The step-by-step process is below.



f(x) = 2^{x} - 6 ----> Switch f(x) and x



x = 2^{f(x)} - 6 ----> Add 6 to both sides



x + 6 = 2^{f(x)} -----> Take the logarithm of both sides in order to get the f(x) out of the exponent



Log(x + 6) = f(x)Log2 ----> Now divide both sides by Log2



\frac{Log(x + 6)}{Log2} = f(x) ----> And switch the order for formatting purposes.



f(x) = \frac{Log(x + 6)}{Log2}



And that would be your new inverse function.

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3 years ago
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vredina [299]

The answer is B.........

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