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3 years ago

must a function that is decreasing over a given interval always be negative over that same interval explain

Mathematics

2 answers:

kolbaska11 [484]3 years ago

8 0

check the picture below.

notice, a function that is decreasing, namely have a negative slope, doesn't have to be negative.

Dimas [21]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

For a function to be decreasing over an interval, the outputs on the function are getting smaller as the inputs of the function are getting larger, but the outputs could be positive or negative. For a function to be negative over an interval, the outputs must be negative, while the inputs could be positive or negative.

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3 years ago

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3 years ago

1. The table shows the probabilities of a response chocolate or vanilla when asking a child or adult. Use the formula for condit

Stels [109]

$\begin{matrix}&\text{chocolate}&\text{vanilla}&\text{total}\\\text{children}&0.14&0.26&0.40\\\text{adults}&0.21&0.39&0.60\\\text{total}&0.35&0.65&1.00\end{matrix}$

a. "Chocolate" and "Adults" (whatever those mean) will be independent as long as

$P(\text{chocolate}\cap\text{adults})=P(\text{chocolate})\cdot P(\text{adults})$

"Chocolate" has the marginal distribution given by the second column, with a total probability of $P(\text{chocolate})=0.35$ . Similarly, "Adults" has the marginal distribution described by the third row, so that $P(\text{adults})=0.60$ . Then

$P(\text{chocolate})\cdot P(\text{adults})=0.35\cdot0.60=0.21$

Meanwhile, the joint probability of "Chocolate" and "Adults" is given by the cell in the corresponding row/column, with $P(\text{chocolate}\cap\text{adults})=0.21$ .

The probabilities match, so these events are indeed independent.

Parts (b) and (c) are checked similarly.

b. Yes;

$P(\text{children})\cdot P(\text{chocolate})=0.40\cdot0.35=0.14$
$P(\text{children}\cap\text{chocolate})=0.14$

c. Yes;

$P(\text{vanilla})\cdot P(\text{children})=0.65\cdot0.40=0.26$
$P(\text{vanilla}\cap\text{children})=0.26$

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3 years ago