Answer:
a. 49
Step-by-step explanation:
so, basically turn the equation around! -15+64. because -15 is in parentheses, we know that it is negative, but another way you can do it is to take away the addition symbol and just use the negative as a subtraction one. so you could do 64-15 and you get 49. for b it's a little different, two negative cancel each other out so because there's a subtraction sign after 18 and there's a negative sign before 55 you can see that to simplify the equation it would be -18+55 or again 55-18. for c I think that one is pretty simple, just do 92-86 (I don't know if you see the pattern yet but most times you can just flip it around.) and for d you can do 17 plus 44 and then make the solution negative. I hope this helped a little!!
Answer:
(4,0) and (0,-2)
Step-by-step explanation:
To find the intercepts, substitute a zero for the opposite letter so
to find y-int x = 0 so 3(0) - 6y = 12 so -6y = 12, so y = -2
to find x-int y = 0 so 3x - 6(0) = 12 so 3x = 12, so x = 4
With math always you photo math get a calculator help and not a human and then click explain work
Answer:
1/169
Step-by-step explanation:
There are 4 jacks in a deck of cards.
So 4/52 is the probability of drawing 1 card
The probability of drawing 2 jacks is 4/52*4/52
Solve, and that is 1/169
I hope this helps!
To factorise by grouping would require grouping the terms into the form x^2 +2a+ a^2= (x-a)^2. In which case, the a term would be 3, as 2a=6, a=3. Hence the factorised form would be (x-3)^2=0 which means that x-3=0 and hence x=3.