Answer: A) Balding
Explanation:
Balding is the most common pshysical change in middle-aged men.
Generally speaking, men between 35 and 40 years old develop a state of baldness that although it is not aggravated, it is notorious. Some men even begin to lose their hair at an earlier age, approximately 25 years old and older, although in those cases it is very likely that the cause is a genetic tendency.
Normally, after a certain age range (stated above) the hair fiber begins to lose strength and said follicles simply do not allow hair growth so fast as they did when the individual was younger.
An abiotic factor is a non living thing
Answer:
25%
Explanation:
When looking at a pedigree remember that:
- squares are males
- circles are females
- the solid colored figure represents an individual affected by a disease
- the empty figure represents a healthy individual
Let us assign the symbol X⁺ to represent the dominant allele linked to the X-chromosome and expressing healthiness, and X⁻ to represent the recessive allele expressing the dissease.
According to this pedigree
- I1 is a man affected by the disease, YX⁻
- I2 is a healthy woman X⁺X⁻
- we can see that among the progeny (generation II) there are two individuals affected (a boy and a girl) and one healthy girl. This means that the mother I2 is heterozygous for the trait.
So, having their genotypes we can know what are the probabilities of getting a son with DMD
Parentals) YX⁻ x X⁺X⁻
Gametes) Y X⁻ X⁺ X⁻
Punnett square)
X⁺ X⁻
X⁻ X⁺X⁻ X⁻X⁻
Y X⁺Y X⁻Y
F1)
- The probabilities of getting a healthy daughter X⁺X⁻ are 25%
- The probabilities of getting a healthy son X⁺Y are 25%
- The probabilities of getting a daughter with DMD X⁻X⁻ are 25%
- The probabilities of getting a son with DMD X⁻Y are 25%
I believe the answer is C but I’m not completely sure
